Subject: Ley Tubes
From: Dominic Green
Date: Mon, 9 Sep 1996 23:26:16 +0100
It has long been the opinion of the world's leading archaeological
centres of Excellence that Ley Lines are invisible lines of Psychic
Force connecting megalithic temple sites. There is, however, a
Scientific Explanation. If we discount, then, the ridiculous notion
that Ley Lines are caused by Psychic Forces, we are left with the Hard
Fact that Ley Lines must be mere Invisible Lines, without Psychic
Content. Faced, then, with a vast and dangerous network of Invisible
Lines criss-crossing the United Kingdom, then, the Ancient People of
Danu must have constructed megalithic temple sites in order to allow
them to project the position of the Unseen Linear Menace; otherwise,
terrible Chariot Accidents and Fatal Trippings could have resulted.
What has become of these Invisible Lines today? They exist still, and
are used by our elected government for clandestine purposes. I have
long wondered at the purpose of the mysterious dual row of so-called
'Crash Barriers' on our nation's motorways. If, as Ministry of
Transport officials claim, these constructs are merely to prevent huge
articulated pantechnicons from slewing across the Centre Reservation
into oncoming traffic, why are there *two* of them? Surely one alone
would be sufficient. No - these 'Crash Barriers' are there to prevent
*us* from getting to the thin six-inch space between them. What is
between these spaces? A Ley Line. And why does our Government not wish
us to know the Ley Line is there? Because Ley Lines are in fact not
lines, but hollow 'Ley Tubes' stretching for hundreds of miles. And
what happens to an object placed inside an Invisible Object? Why, it
becomes itself Invisible. Our governments' Intelligence Services
therefore have a foolproof method of secreting objects of any type
whatsoever, provided that these objects are long and tubular*. It is no
accident, then, that Nuclear Missiles are becoming longer and more
tubular as time progresses. And can it be a coincidence that American
Cruise Missiles disappeared from Britain's roads at almost exactly the
same time that Britain's motorways were built? A difference of only
fifty years is, after all, negligible compared to the entire time since
Amphibians first crawled onto the land, and could be accounted for by
inaccuracies in Uranium Dating. Other such coincidences spring to mind
- the Death of Sidney Vicious at the same time as the birth of the
current Panchen Lama, and the outbreak of Ebola Virus at the same time
as Macaulay Culkin attained Puberty. These incidents, too, may not be
as coincidental as they seem; I intend to write a monograph on the
subject entitled 'Macaulay Culkin, Murderer of Millions.'
Yours
Reverend Colonel Ignatius Churchward Von Berlitz M.A. (Dom. Sci.) Oxon.
(Oklahoma)
*The Government of these Islands previously possessed a *second* method
of infallibly secreting objects that were long and tubular, but with the
death of a certain Mr. Milligan, this method is unfortunately lost to
history.
Subject: Re: Egyptian Tree Words
From: Saida
Date: Mon, 09 Sep 1996 18:16:41 -0500
Troy Sagrillo wrote:
>
> Saida wrote:
> >
> > Troy Sagrillo wrote:
> > >
> > > Saida wrote:
> > > >
> > > > Apropos of the ongoing (but haphazard) discussion about whether the
> > > > ancient Egyptian language has any bearing on English, I would like to
> > > > point out some Egyptian words for trees that were either growing in Egypt
> > > > or imported for their wood:
> > >
> > > [note: since "on-the-fly" transliteration of Egyptian is a bit confusing, I am
> > > using the standard computer transliteration system in the Manual de Codage; you
> > > can see it at:
> > >
> > > http://131.211.68.206/names/rules.html
> > >
> > > Expections: I will use /`/ for `ayn, and /3/ for the "alif"-vulutre (the a/A
> > > distinction tends to get lost, and some tend to mistakenly treat them as
> > > vowels)]
> >
> > Hi, Troy! Well, I know many find this system helpful, but I am dead
> > against it. I would rather be in error here and there and have
> > Egyptian, which to me is and always has been a living language look like
> > that.
>
> Fair enough Saida, but I had difficulties finding the Egyptian original in
> various dictionaries because I couldn't "reconstruct" the Egyptian you
> intended. With 4 kinds of "h"s to deal with, and the Latin letter "a" being
> used to represent both the `ayn and the "alif" vulture, IMO we need some
> sort of standard system that is clear to all. Moreover, some letters are
> frequently rendered as vowels in the Latin alphabet, but they were *not*
> vowels in Egyptian (such as "a" for `ayn). Lastly, Egyptian is not a living
> language (not even Coptic is used as a daily language anymore), and
> pronunciation in Old, Middle, and Late Egyptian (not to mention demotic and
> and the various dialects of Coptic) are all different. If we don't know the
> vowels (or only have vague clues), any vocalised rendering is going to be at
> least somewhat circumspect. If you are interested in the reconstruction of
> Egyptian vocalisations, I highly recommend (though they aren't exactly fun
> reads ;) ):
>
> Loprieno, Antonio. 1995. Ancient Egyptian: A Linguistic Introduction.
> Cambridge: Cambridge University Press.
>
> Vycichl, Werner. 1990. La vocalisation de la langue egyptienne. Volume 1: La
> phonetique. Bibliotheque d'Etude 16. Cairo: Imprimerie de l'Institut
> francais d'Archeologie orientale.
Troy, you are right in that there must be standard, but it is THIS
standard with the symbols I don't like the looks of. Just a personal
prejudice and I must learn to read it, I suppose, although this is the
first time (in this thread) that I have ever discussed ancient Egyptian
with anybody at any great length.
>
> > The Island of Cyprus was called "Ay Nibinaitet enti em her ib Wat Ur" or
> > "The Island of Cyprus which is in the midst of the Great Green (i.e. the
> > sea). "Ay" isn't a far cry from "isle" and "Wat Ur" certainly is
> > evocative of "water".
>
> Except that your "Wat Ur" is /w3D wr/ (normally vocalised today as "wadj
> wer", but was probably pronounced in Old/Middle Egyptian as *wa:Rij wu:r;
> the /R/ is the "thick "r" (sort of half way between a normal "r" and "l"
> (often used in Japanese); Loprieno discusses this issue in detail)). BTW, /
> w3D wr/ was applied to the Mediterranean (as you note), the Red Sea, Lake
> Moeris, and the "celestial" ocean of the Netherworld.
It is my suspicion that both "r" and "l" (when needed) were pronounced
like "w", so I think that pretty much agrees with what you are saying.
Kind of crazy, isn't it? Also, I would guess that the "r" at the end of
a word was negligible in BBC English fashion. The glyph that looks like
a chick was, I think, pronounced as a "w" at the beginning of a word but
as a "u" thereafter. "Wat Ur" should, theoretically, have had a "w" in
the beginning of both words, but, as it really served as one word, I
think the "Ur is correct.
>
> >
> > > > cedar-- ash
>
> > > Egyptian /`S/ is *not* cedar, but some type of yellow-wooded conifer or fir (or
> > > the entire class of such trees); in certain circumstances it refers to the
> > > lumber from such trees. You might want to look at:
> > >
> > > Loret, Victor. 1916. "Quelques notes sur l'arabe a^ch." Annales du Service des
> > > Antiquites de l'Egypte 16:3351.
>
> > I haven't read the sources you cite, but "ash" used to be considered
> > "cedar" and I don't know how it's been determined that it's not so. I
> > can only say that "ash" is written with the little ovoid sign for
> > something odiforous and cedar certainly has its distinctive smell.
>
> You are right, it did *used* to be considered "cedar", because /`S/ wood was
> imported from Lebanon (the whole Cedars of Lebanon business). Unfortunately,
> as Loret discusses, in paintings /`S/ wood (`ash if you must) is light
> yellow in colour, not red. In most modern translations the term "conifers"
> is now used. The question now is, what is the Egyptian term for "cedar"?
I wish I had access to your sources. I would love to read them.
>
> > > > myrrh-- tesher
> > >
> > > The word "myrrh" is Semitic in origin, borrowed via Greek /murra/; Semitic
> > > examples include Arabic /murr/ and Hebrew /mor/.
> > >
> > > Egyptian for "myrrh" is /`ntyw/ not "tesher"(?)
> >
> > You are certainly right about "myrrh" being Semitic. I am not familiar
> > with "ntyw". "Anti" was a commonly used word for myrhh--the "shemsi
> > anti" being a ceremony involving the offering of this substance.
>
> We're talking about the same thing here. You missed my little tick /`/ for
> the `ayn in /`ntyw/. ;)
Are you surprised? :) It's a whole new language! Anyway, by "tesher" I
only meant the tree itself. It seems to have had something to do with
redness, but I wouldn't be able to guess why.
>
> > "Kher"
> > was perhaps also myrrh and must have been commonly used because it
> > survived into the Coptic "kal" (another example of my theory that the
> > Egyptian "r" was a weak consonant).
> > >
>
> You are absolutely right about the /r/ coming down into most Coptic dialects
> as /l/. Now imagine what kind of vowel shifts must have been going on as
> well and you can see how difficult it is to reconstruct ancient Egyptian as
> a spoken language...
The difficulty isn't as great as all that. Egyptian didn't use "o"
much, so that eliminates having to guess about this vowel. There are a
couple of "a" sounds represented and also "u" "i" and "y". That leaves
only "e", with which Coptic has been most helpful.
>
> > > > juniper-- war
> > >
> > > "war"???
> >
> > Yes. Juniper is presumably from Latin, again, but perhaps it did have
> > its origin in Egyptian with something like "tscha'au pensh em war",
> > meaning the seedy berries coming from the "war" tree.
>
> Please help me out here. I am guessing your "war" is /w3r/ (or /w`r/?), but
> I have been unable to find such a word meaning "juniper" in either Faulkner
> or Lesko. Are you using another source? Oh, wait, I found it in Budge's
> dict. in typically Late Egyptian orthography. It is /w`r/ (with the `ayn),
> and Budge notes it as being questionable. Since this is Budge, it would be
> best to check the Worterbuch on this, IMHO. Anyhow, the medial `ayn needs to
> be accounted for (though by the time Egyptian "becomes" Coptic, it was
> apparently lost).
Budge, IMHO, was a great linguist and scholar of ancient Egyptian and I
see no reason to trust German interpretations over his. Probably, he
made errors. Even those who "corrected" him were second-guessed by
somebody else, in turn, on certain things. Sir Alan Gardiner has
corrected himself in various editions of his grammar. Were he still
here, he'd still be doing it, no doubt. The Egyptologists who
specialized in the language had to convince each other that they were
right in their assertions. Sometimes they did (see Gardiner's notes on
how he changed his mind because Prof. X made him see the
light--sometimes grudgingly) just like we are trying to do in this
thread. But the truth is elusive here. If Budge guessed "war" was
"juniper" we may as well take his word--especially since you say there
is not much alternative. How about "Tcha'au en pa war"? This would be
referring to the berries, which seem to figure in Egyptian medicinal
recipes. Unless someone can give me a good idea of how the Romans came
up with the catchy word "juniper".
>
> > This is
> > speculative, but a better example of Latin from Egyptian might be the
> > word for "ivory", pronounced variously "ab", "abu" or "yab".
>
> Just a point of discussion (not an attack): how do you know this? At what
> point in the history of the language (Old, Middle, New, &c.;) is /3bw/
> vocalised in such ways? Unfortunately I don't have either Crumm's or Cerny's
> Coptic dictionaries here, but that would be a place to start.
Look in Budge. It won't do you irreparable harm. Just don't tell
anybody.:)
>
> The
> > Egyptians liked to say "pure as the ivory" like we do "pure as the
> > driven snow". Ivory in Latin is "eboreus". We have been doing this on
> > the sci.arch for a while now and it seems to me that, at the very least,
> > we are beginning to see that those exotic things not commonly known to
> > northern climes have found their way into Anglo-Saxon via a route of
> > languages going straight back to Egyptian.
> > >
> > > > palm-- yam (perhaps with the Egyptian definite article "pa" it becomes
> > > > pa yam and then "palm"
> > >
> > > "yam"?
> >
> > Yup. "Bener" is a good palm word, too, denoting the "dum" palm which
> > flourished best in the southern part of Upper Egypt.
>
> Ahh, found it in Budge as /imi/ and /im3/; again questioned by Budge, and
> ought to be checked in the Worterbuch. Lesko's Late Egyptian dict. gives /
> im3w/ and /i3mw/ (same orthography as Budge's) as "wood, tree". Faulkner
> gives /im3/ "a tree" and cites p. Wilbour 31 as '*not* date-palm'.
I'll check this one over. Maybe I'll have to rethink it, but there
should be one most frequently used term for this common item and I'll
try to determine what it was. Maybe you can help me :) Anyway, "im3w"
is quite a mouthful, in your transliteration or mine.
>
> > >
> > > > persea -- ishet
> > > >
> > > > olive-- ba'ak
> > >
> > > Egyptian /b3q/ for "olive tree" is not at all certain; it most likely the
> > > moringa tree and its oil. The Egyptian word for "olive" and "olive oil", /Ddt/,
> > > is a loan-word from Semitic (cognates include Arabic /zayt/; Ugaritic /zt/;
> > > Phoenician /zt/; Syriac /zayta/; Ethiopic (Ge`ez) /zayt/.
> >
> > I am not too sure about olive tree, either. "Ba'aq" is found in the
> > Book of the Dead, for example.
>
> I did some checking on this. Olive trees are not reperesented until late
> Dyn. XVIII and the Semitic loan word /Ddt/ does not show up until Dyn. XIX
> (when a huge number of Semitic loanwords start showing up in Egyptian). /
> b3q/ is the moringa tree (and its oil) -- Lucas & Harris (Ancient Egyptian
> Materials & Industries) comment that "references to olive trees, olives, and
> olive oil in translations of Egyptian texts are to be treated with
> caution...since in many cases it is the Egyptian words for the moringa tree
> and ben oil that have been incorrectly interpreted as olive" (4th ed., p.
> 333).
>
> > > > incense tree-- senter (I believe this word is allied to "incense" and
> > > > "censer", a vessel for burning incense
> > >
> > > Egyptian /s.nTr/ is a nominal form of the causitive verb "to make
> > > god-like".
> >
> > That well may be. How about the word "scent"?
> > >
> > > > BTW, in Egyptian the word for "plant" or growing things was "rut" with a
> > > > long u
> > > > and even the little creature that buzzes among flowers and plants,
> > > > the bee, was called "beet".
> > >
> > > Egyptian /bit/ is the subject of a recent word study, and is from a known Afro-
> > > asiatic root:
> > >
> > > Schneider, Thomas. 1993. "Zur Etymologie der Bezeichnung "Ko"nig von Ober- und
> > > Untera"gypten". Zeitschrift fu"r A"gyptische Sprache und Altertumskunde
> > > 120:166118.
> >
> > I am happy with this thread because, disagreements and all, I think we
> > are getting to the bottom of something, separating the wheat from the
> > chaff, linguistically, and I am not hearing a unanymous "Egyptian
> > couldn't possibly have anything to do with English" any longer. Putting
> > our heads together is the way it should be done.
>
> I have my doubts, but I was taught that Egyptian /dSr.t/ "red land" comes
> into English as "desert". Personally I think this is unlikely (there is a
> Latin root /deserere/ "to leave, forsake"), but who knows, seeing that /kmt/
> "black land" (Coptic "keme"/"kheme") *may* come into English via Arabic via
> Greek as "alchemy".
Yes, those "black" arts. Troy, whenever you are tempted to doubt me,
remember who figured out Ishinan's gibberish wasn't really Arabic!
Okay, okay, just kidding...
Subject: Re: Sea Peoples, Philistines and Greeks
From: S.NEMETH@IX.NETCOM.COM (Stella Nemeth)
Date: Tue, 10 Sep 1996 04:03:34 GMT
"Alan M. Dunsmuir" wrote:
>In article <50vens$m9u@dfw-ixnews5.ix.netcom.com>, Stella Nemeth
> writes
>>Do let me know which word you would prefer to use in future
>>conversations on this period. I'll attempt to remember to use it.
>I - like I think everybody else in the field - prefer 'Greeks'. or
>'Hellenes' (both of which include Achaeans, who may well have been
>descendents of the 'Myceneans', and Dorians, who certainly weren't. Your
>major problem, Stella, is that you insist on making the leap of
>imagination, unfettered by the restraints of reality, from the separate
>groups of people who have left archaeological finds behind them
>("Myceneans" and "Minoans" are two such groups) to your vision of
>migrating groups of mankind wandering around the Mediterranean and the
>Levant, dropping a trail of artifacts for the sole purpose of
>establishing their real identity, for you to interpret.
I'm making a leap of imagination??? Perhaps to anyone who is so far
behind the times that he hasn't been clued in to the fact that there
is great doubt that there ever was a "Dorian invasion". There doesn't
seem to be any proof of one. At least not in the right places and the
right time.
The most recent theory I've seen, and I don't claim that it is the
most recent out there, is that the Dorians were the folks out in the
sticks (or the hill country) who moved into the better farming areas
after the general depopulation of Greece as a whole when the Bronze
Age civilizations collapsed.
There is evidence of lots of trade. I've posted about that. There
seems to be evidence of population groups entering the Levant at about
the same time. Changes in pottery. Changes in housing styles.
Changes in language even at times.
None of this is fantasy.
>Please do not use the word "Mycenean" for anything or anybody later than
>1200BC, unless there is indisputable evidence of a Mycenean site to
>support the attribution. In doing so you only encourage poor Steve with
>his delusions.
Yes, SIR!!!! Like I said, I tend to mirror the words used by others.
I gather you prefer the word Greek? As strange as it might seem, so
do I. But not because the Mycenaeans disappeared.
>(On another line entirely - do you *really* still not accept the 1628BC
>date for Thera? Every time I have seen you mention it over the last
>couple of months, it has been in the context of such phrases as "the
>jury is still out", or "I guess we'll have to go back to King Lists for
>our dating". Do you really believe this to be the case? Or are you
>simply coming to terms with the fact that some earlier support you may
>have expressed for Rohl and James is now seen to be entirely misplaced?
I'm still partly undecided. Henry has basically convinced me that the
1628 event has to be Thera. I've always accepted that there was a
1628 event, but since there was another event closer in time to many
of the traditional dates, I needed to know why they thought it wasn't
Thera. He has answered most of my questions.
As for Rohl, I didn't express support. I asked questions because I
knew I didn't know enough to make a decision about his book and most
of the objections to his theory that I read here were about things he
hadn't claimed in his book. I wouldn't be surprised to discover that
he is right about some of the things he discusses in his book without
being right about the entire theory.
>The jury not only is not still out on this one. It has been roundly
>thanked by the judge for its efforts in reaching a verdict, and has been
>excused further jury duty for the rest of its life.)
Of course the jury is still out on this one. And it will stay out for
at least another year. The king lists are still the best short term
method of deciding how many years between king A and king B.
Dendrochronology can't do that. Pottery styles are still the best on
the ground method of deciding if you are in Level A or Level B of a
dig because you can do it on the fly, right there at the dig. No one
method is perfect for all things.
There are two things needed before the 1628 date will be nailed down,
both probably due to arrive in the next year. First a totally
independent dating of the 1628 event by a method unrelated to either
C14 or Dendrochronology which will link it to Thera. This will
provide a final, and independent, decision about the 1628 event.
Second, the dating of Egyptian wood, found in known circumstances,
currently in museum collections and due to be sent to Cornell during
the past year and the present one. This will provide the framework
for a new chronology.
We live in exciting times. Personally, I'm enjoying the entire thing.
Stella Nemeth
s.nemeth@ix.netcom.com
Subject: Re: Egyptian Tree Words
From: Troy Sagrillo
Date: Tue, 10 Sep 1996 03:26:27 GMT
Saida wrote:
>
> You also stated that you believe my way of transliterating Egyptian is
> "phonologically misleading". There is nothing intentional in this, you
> know, but you are right. Yet the other system is no more helpful,
> because we have much less of an idea how Egyptian was pronounced than it
> was written.
But, with all due respect, what is the point then of making up a
pronunciation? If all we have are consonants, then these is all we have -- no
point in *assuming* a particular vowelling pattern is being employed. Sure,
we should try to determine the vowels and pronunciation as best can be based
on available sources, but ultimately, this is only an approximate
reconstruction. Besides, with regard to *transliteration*, this is only
intended as a way of noting the *written* orthography of Egyptian, not the
phonetics. /imn-Htp/ might look strange, but I can look this right up in any
scholarly source instead of having to dig around looking for "Amenhotep",
Amunhopte", "Imunhetep", &c.; (all of which have been used in print at one
time or another).
> I have some theories on this pronunciation that would
> surprise most people interested in this subject. I believe, given its
> geographic location, that Egyptian has been treated too much like a
> Semitic language as regards its intonation. Yet it seems to me that
> Egyptian is such an eccentric language that we cannot count on Semitic
> to give us much of an idea how it sounded.
Egyptian is no more eccentric than any other language; it just has its own
set of rules. And you are right about using only Semitic sources for
reconstructing Egyptian phonology, but they *are* the closest we have, and
the ones with the most interchange with Egyptian (Berber languages are also *
extremely* helpful, but much less well known).
> Even the "ayin" sound, which
> is so distinctly Semitic, has been attributed to Egyptian, yet I am far
> from sure that their "ayin" signs (the foremost being the extended
> forearm) were pronounced in the Semitic fashion.
Not at all! `ayn is a general phoneme found in most Afro-asiatic languages,
Semitic and Egyptian included, but also Berber languages.