![]() |
![]() |
Back |
Xina: . >I have no concrete date that I can cite with certainty about the >earth's true age . But the 4 1/2 billion year old earth ,in our reality, is fairly modern, hence very young -- and, of course, subject to change at any time. It is interesting, however, that the Adam & Eve myth in Gen. 2 and 3, probably preserved for centuries before Moses as sacred drama, also attempts no chronology. The chronology of Gen. 5 starts with a, probably estimated, epoch of the Genesis calendar equated with the epoch of the 1st dynasty (Adam) is much like our own chronology based on the estimated birth of Christ. It has also been suggested by several physicists (cf. Gribbin's "Schrodinger's Kittens") that 10 billion years is not nearly enough for the development of cellular forms, and that such forms must therefore have developed long before our solar system and its planets. Recently this theory that these forms peppered our planets from outer space has been given new impetus by the discovery of the possibility of such forms on Mars. . >If Adam was the 'first man' (or was he the first white man as some >here have proposed) then we can actually date him to over 10,000 years >ago. . No we can"t. Even though the name Adam (from Heb. DM = blood) suggests "blood pigmented" and therefore "white", that does not mean that the first MAN (in the biblical idiom) can be dated much before 4000 BC. That is because MAN, in the biblical sense, is that life form that had a national nonmimetic written language and a monarchical civilization (such that "whatsoever Adam called [everything], that was the name thereof" -- Gen. 2:19). Our extension of the term "man" to an organic "species" only causes confusion. In the biblical idiom, MAN is verbal (also literate and monarchical) not organic. That life form is scarcely 6000 years old. . >If the biblical flood was an actuality, *why* was there no break in >the architecture, art and culture of any civilization in the areas of >africa and Europe at that time? . Because the flood was confined to "the face of the earth" -- KJV, or "faces of the Adamah" -- Heb. If you read my previous message to you, including the postscript, you know that probably "faces of the Adamah" was approx. Long. 95 to 105, Lat. 44 to 54, from whence Cain had long since been expelled -- Gen. 4:14. . SOURCE . The Bible . Suds DARWIN IS BURIED IN WESTMINSTER ABBEY WITH OTHER CHURCH OF ENGLAND GREATSReturn to Top
John A. Halloran (seagoat@primenet.com) wrote: : In article <56dpr3$r14@news.ycc.yale.edu> bdiebold@pantheon.yale.edu : >Anyway, your word number arguments should not be accepted. Miguel has : >posted several excellent posts demonstrating why your repeated claim that : >word count is isomorphic with language sophistication is bunk. : This is not true. It is easier to learn Biblical Hebrew than it is to learn : Modern Hebrew because they had a smaller vocabulary back then. Read again. My point was with regard to Whittet's claims about isomorphism, that counting words determined language complexity (a position he has now recanted). But your point is strange. All else being equal, it is better to learn fewer words than more, but all else is never equal. Memorizing vocabulary is typically the *easiest* part of learning any language. What makes language study hard are all the different ways people put things together. : At the time that the Sumerians invented writing (ca. 3200 B.C.), they had a : vocabulary somewhere between 1,000 and 2,000 words. And a number of these : words describe Bronze Age inventions, so earlier the word count was smaller. An even more strange point. Why on earth you should imagine that the earliest Uruk texts represent in written form the complete spoken language capabilities of the people of Uruk is beyond me. It utterly ignores everything, including the context of early literacy in the Near East. This is like arguing that every non-literate society has no language (except for those cases where they are known to actually have language, which is *all* of them, everywhere). [snip] : Actually, the more economical explanation for 60 families of : languages on a small island is that the concept of language diffused to : separate clans each of whom basically invented their own vocabulary : and grammar. Frankly, one might argue that an even more economical argument is that the world was created 6000 years ago with language from the get go. If you're going to argue for ex nihilo creationism without an oort of proof why not go all the way? Anyway, I'm still interested in the correlates of diffusion, which seem to be utterly lacking here. How is it that the "concept of language" diffuses without *any* associated material culture or linguistic traces? Is there any parallel for such a thing happening anywhere? BenReturn to Top
Saida wrote: > > saraswati@vossnet.co.uk wrote: > > > > Does anyone have any up-to-date information about the identification > > of the 'Elder Woman' found in the tomb of Amenhotep II as Queen > > Tiye? The analysis of the hair samples from Tutankhamun's tomb > > with those of the mummy seem to indicate that it is Queen Tiye, > > but apparently the 'edler woman' is too young to be Tiye. Anyone > > heard anything new? > > DNA samples have been taken from the royal mummies to confirm, among > other considerations, their identities. Since female mummies are > crucial in this work, one can safely assume, I think, that the "Elder > Lady" has been included in the study. For more information, and a > hypothesis regarding his work, see Scott Woodward's article in the > Sept/Oct 96 issue of ARCHAEOLOGY magazine. (Maybe you can even read this > article online). I've heard that there is some speculation that she could be Ankhesenamen. (Apparently this was based on her age). I wish I could remember where I had read this....Return to Top
EliyehowahReturn to Topwrote: *Necron wrote: *> Elijah, *> Noone cares what you post, but we prefer that you keep biblical debate out of *> alt.satanism and in a more appropriate newsgroup.This is only common courtesy and it's *> as simple as trimming your headers. I am trying to get people in alt.satanism to do *> this as well. Part of this whole thing was started by people not trimming their headers *> and inappropriately crossposting. I do not know if you frequent alt.satanism where I *> am reading this thread, so I will leave the headers to insure that you see this. *> Necron *> Temple of the Ram *Your reply is good and reasonable. (Most are not.) *When I wish to reply to a 22-newsgroup header, I would open *a new thread and just paste the few groups I was sending to. *However, a reply about Satan may be a thread to some idol *image of the dark ages so how do I know whether to edit out *archeology......you soon find out by the threats. Another example, *is your posting why you left the headers to find me.....I only *search alt.religion.christian, alt.mythology, and alt.archeology *All the other headers come from replying. etc. ************************************************************************************************************** I have noticed that this issue of crossposting via not trimming headers has been around for a long time without solution. As a person who does not have much time to spend on newsgroups triming headers is more time consuming than I can afford. It is also putting me in the position of editor to decide where this post belongs. Who am I to judge through the plethera of newsgroups just where this particular post should go. Instead of asking the origninal poster (the person who is really responsible) not to send certain materials to certain newsgroups, people who are merely trying to participate in discussions are harrased continually. I am not responsible for deciding what goes where, I refuse to be put in the spot of the editor of the newsgroups. If you don't like a thread you may delete it or you could also put it in your kill file. Let us all try to make the newsgroups a more pleasant place to be.
In article <328C94C2.71B9@ccil.org>, cowan@ccil.org says... > >Steve Whittet replied to me thus: > >> >> Just to give an analogy, after man arrived in the New World and >> >> hunted big game like bears, bison and mamoths to the point of >> >> extinction horses evolved some twenty two new *species* to fill >> >> the niche. Man has been in New Guinea about 70 times as long >> >> as it took the new World horses to evolve. > >Note the structure of this claim is that the following events >occurred, in the given order: > > 1. Man arrived in the New World. > 2. Man hunted bears, bison, and mammoths to extinction > 3. Horses evolved 22 new species to fill the niche > (a horse filling a bear's niche would be quite something!) Actually, the niche that is created by an absence of a predator need not be a predatory niche. Bears not attacking horses as frequently may have made them a gentler more easily domesticated animal. This would have applied throughout Beringa which includes Siberia as far west as lake Baikal. > >> >Now this is the merest rubbish. Within historic times there have >> >been only two species of horses (plus two ass and three zebra >> >species): > >I said "historic times", i.e. 6,000 B.P. at most. Even extending >that back to 30,000 B.P. or so, the date of event 1 above >has nothing to do with equine evolution. 1.) Mans arrival in North America was about 12,000 years BP Though earlier dates were claimed some decades back, none of the 30 some odd early claims in the Americas have remained uncontroversial. 2.) Comment 3 above is a quote from a phone conversation with Bruce MacFadden. It isn't known if the "sub species" which evolved from, Equus Caballus between 12,000 and 10,000 years ago could have interbred, they might not have because of no other reason than geographical separation. A rapid rate of evolutionary change apparently was caused by the enviornmental stress of being hunted to extinction compounded with climatic change. The horses refered to apparently were found in and named for separate box canyons in Mexico. Equus Caballus Laurentis for one, if I remember corectly. 3.)I provided cites, where are yours? > >[irrelevancies removed] > >[Table showing evolution of equids from *Hyracotherium* to >*Equus* removed: the most *recent* event in this table is >2 My B.P.] > >[more on pre-*Equus* species removed] > >> However, one-toed >> Equus was very successful. Until about 1 million years ago, there >> were Equus species all over Africa, Asia, Europe, North America, >> and South America, in enormous migrating herds that must easily >> have equalled the great North American bison herds, or the huge >> wildebeest migrations in Africa. >> >> In the late Pleistocene there was a set of devastating extinctions >> that killed off most of the large mammals in North and South America. >> All the horses of North and South America died out (along with the >> mammoths and saber-tooth tigers). These extinctions seem to have >> been caused by a combination of climatic changes and overhunting >> by humans, who had just reached the New World. >> >> For the first time in tens of millions of years, there were no equids >> in the Americas. > >Note well the dating. *Until about 1 My ago* there were many >species of horses. *Nobody* thinks that there were *Homo sapiens* >in the New World 1 My ago. Please note that Kathleen Hunt caries on down to the Pleistocene and finishes with the phrase "These extinctions seem to have been caused by a combination of climatic changes and overhunting* by humans, who had just reached the New World.* The Quaternary period from about 1.5 MYBP to the Present which is where Kathleen ended her graph with a tree is divided into the Pleistocene which ends about 10,000 BP and the Holocene. For horses and man to be linked in the new world you can't go much farther back than the end of the Pleistocene. > >[3 species of zebras removed] > >> Equus caballus, the true horse, which once had several subspecies. > >Subspecies aren't species. > >[P's wild horse and 2 species of asses removed] > >> In North America Equus Caballus developed into a number of species >> to fill the niches of other animals going extinct sometime before >> it went extinct itself. > >Which was in the 1 My time frame, not the 30Ky (or 11Ky) time frame. >Or do you think 60,000-90,000 years negligible? No, read the sentence again: "These extinctions seem to have been caused by a combination of climatic changes and overhunting* by humans, who had just reached the New World.* > >> >Mr. Whittet is plainly smoking some unusual juice here. >> >> Research first, then post. > >Understand what you read, too. That's good advice...:) > >-- >John Cowan steveReturn to Top
In article <328C94C2.71B9@ccil.org>, cowan@ccil.org says... [most snipped] >[P's wild horse and 2 species of asses removed] ^^^^^ More, more! (I'm sorry, but one gets few opportunities as golden as this!) Brian M. ScottReturn to Top
In articleReturn to Topseagoat@primenet.com (John A. Halloran) writes: > >In article <56dpr3$r14@news.ycc.yale.edu> bdiebold@pantheon.yale.edu (Benjamin >H. Diebold) writes: >>Anyway, your word number arguments should not be accepted. Miguel has >>posted several excellent posts demonstrating why your repeated claim that >>word count is isomorphic with language sophistication is bunk. Answer: >This is not true. It is easier to learn Biblical Hebrew than it is to learn >Modern Hebrew because they had a smaller vocabulary back then. I am not so sure that it is "easier" to learn Biblical Hebrew; that is a personal matter. Some people learn a living language much faster than a written one in a new writing system. In any case, vocabulary is not the hardest part of learning a language. The volume of words in Biblical Hebrew and modern cannot be readily compared, as the written text has a limited stylistic and rhetorical horizon and cannot be used for evaluating the full vocabulary of spoken language in antiquity. >At the time that the Sumerians invented writing (ca. 3200 B.C.), they had a >vocabulary somewhere between 1,000 and 2,000 words. And a number of these >words describe Bronze Age inventions, so earlier the word count was smaller. That is quite incorrect. The first writing system is not a full represenation of any spoken language, but a new semiotic system. It has hardly any verbs and was devised to notate only a limited official set of transactions. There is no way that one can use this material to evaluate the vocabulary of a language. We will never be able to evaluate the full vocabulary of Sumerian, and it is not even clear if Sumerian was the sole language spoken in the area, nor what the relationship, in socio-linguistic terms, was between the "language" of the first texts and any spoken in society. Some, including the members of the Berlin team that is publishing the first texts, refuse to take a stand on whether the language underlying the tablets is indeed Sumerian, although others (including this writer) think there is enough evidence that it was some register of Sumerian. The idea that social complexity requires, or engenders larger vocabulary is completely unsupported by any research that I am aware of. If the US is any indication, the reverse seems to be the case. Many people I run into seem to have a ver small vocabulary built around the word "like," with the occassional addition of "you know" (not a scientific observation--I know!). Moreover how does one evaluate the size of a vocabulary? Individuals in a speech community have various levels of active and passive vocabulary knowledge, as do different groups, in statistical terms. Gender, status, profession, etc., all have an effect. In literate societies words that are longer used in speech are preserved in written language, etc. This kind of social evolutionary ideology is very much in the same theoretical frame as 19th century IE historical linguistics. Norman Yoffee wrote a very nice essay in American Antiquity a decade or so ago on this kind of social evolutionary theory. >>Also, Steve's "theory" (I think it lacks enough supporting data to even >>make this level), does not account for the incredible variety of human >>language, such as the some 60 *families* of languages in New Guinea >>*alone* (a group of societies that never really urbanized, by Steve's >>standards, until historic times, if then). >>Naturally, a conception of language as predating all those things would >>have no difficulty whatsoever with any of these objections. reply >This is also not true. Lacking any other model for language origin than the >descent model perfected by scholars of Indo-European, linguists operating in >the current paradigm can see no way for a language to arise other than by >permutation of an older language, so they extend this ad infinitum back into >the past. Actually, the more economical explanation for 60 families of >languages on a small island is that the concept of language diffused to >separate clans each of whom basically invented their own vocabulary >and grammar. This is a red herring meant to bolster a strange theory about Sumerian. There are various models of language development that are not all based on the original tree model and quite a bit of discussion on language contact, diffusion, etc. The incredible explosion of Creole studies is also linked to an interest in language "creation", but to set up the models of IE from the last century as a straw man and to insist that any older theory, by definition, must be wrong, is not much of an improvement. The historical reconstruction of the development of IE has been, in general terms, quite a success, as has been the study of the history of Afroasiatic, Uralic, etc. It is only when one has families, or isolates, that are not well documented, that all sorts of unsupportable theories can be proposed without any rigor or control. Just because other related languages have not survived does not obviate models of historical linguistics formed on the basis of attested families.
Jo Glazier wrote: > > Saida wrote: > > > > saraswati@vossnet.co.uk wrote: > > > > > > Does anyone have any up-to-date information about the identification > > > of the 'Elder Woman' found in the tomb of Amenhotep II as Queen > > > Tiye? The analysis of the hair samples from Tutankhamun's tomb > > > with those of the mummy seem to indicate that it is Queen Tiye, > > > but apparently the 'edler woman' is too young to be Tiye. Anyone > > > heard anything new? > > > > DNA samples have been taken from the royal mummies to confirm, among > > other considerations, their identities. Since female mummies are > > crucial in this work, one can safely assume, I think, that the "Elder > > Lady" has been included in the study. For more information, and a > > hypothesis regarding his work, see Scott Woodward's article in the > > Sept/Oct 96 issue of ARCHAEOLOGY magazine. (Maybe you can even read this > > article online). > > I've heard that there is some speculation that she could be > Ankhesenamen. (Apparently this was based on her age). I wish I could > remember where I had read this.... I proposed this possibility in my article "A Tale of Two Tiyes", which was on this newsgroup and can now be found in Deja News.Return to Top
Steve Whittet wrote: [actually, my summary of his claim] > > 3. Horses evolved 22 new species to fill the niche > 2.) Comment 3 above is a quote from a phone conversation with > Bruce MacFadden. It isn't known if the "sub species" which > evolved from, Equus Caballus between 12,000 and 10,000 years > ago could have interbred, they might not have because of > no other reason than geographical separation. A rapid > rate of evolutionary change apparently was caused by the > enviornmental stress of being hunted to extinction compounded > with climatic change. The horses refered to apparently were > found in and named for separate box canyons in Mexico. > > Equus Caballus Laurentis for one, if I remember correctly. Ah, now the claim is that 22 subspecies of (true) horses evolved in the New World between 12KyBP and 10KyBP. This claim is actually moderately plausible, since subspecies are very much in the eye of the beholder. As you say, it is hardly possible to determine from a bunch of slightly different skeletons whether or not the subspecies could have interbred: nevertheless, if a vertebrate paleontologist goes on record with the term "subspecies", he implies that, in his best judgment, they could have interbred. > >> Equus caballus, the true horse, which once had several subspecies. > > > >Subspecies aren't species. You don't deal with this point at all (admittedly, I buried it too deep). It is fairly easy to get agreement (at least for extant species) on species boundaries. It is often very hard to get agreement on the number of subspecies, or even on whether the category is relevant at all. Taxonomists can be "lumpers" or "splitters" (just like linguistic taxonomists, no surprise). -- John Cowan cowan@ccil.org e'osai ko sarji la lojbanReturn to Top
mcv@pi.net (Miguel Carrasquer Vidal) wrote: >Lemnos stela: >side B reads, starting from the top left: > HOLAIEZI:PHOKIASIALE:ZERONAITH:EVISTHO:TOVERONA > ROM:HARALIO:EPTEZIO:ARAI:TIZ:PHOKE:\ > ZIVAI:AVIZ:SIALKHVIZ:MARAZM:AVIZ:AOMAI >A reads: >(vertical lower right line:) > HOLAIE:Z:NAPHOTH >(top right:) > ZIAZI: >(bottom horizontal line and up:) > ZIVAI > EVISTHO:ZERONAITH > SIALKHVEI.Z:AVI:Z > :MARA.Z:MAV >(bottom left, two vertical lines) > VA.M.ALA.SIAL:ZERONAIMORINAIL > AKER:TAVARZIO >(S and Z are two varieties of s, as found also in Etruscan. > PH, TH and KH are single letters) >Woudhuizen reads: >1. A. Zivai sialkhveiz aviz maraz-m av(iz aomai) > B. Zivai aviz sialkhviz maraz.m aviz aomai > "Sivai of sixty and five years died?" >comments: I'd connectReturn to Topwith Etr. am(u)- "to be" (amu-ce >"he was"). There is an Etr. infinitive(?) in -e. A past participle >might work here... >2. A. Holaiezi naphoth Zlazi > B. Holaiez phokiasiale > "of Holaie [son? of Sla][the Phokaian]" > A. vanacasial Zeronai Morinai.c > "during the kingship in Serona and Myrina" >comments: the Lycian masc. name Sla is gratuitous, and as I don't see >any other initial clusters in the text, it goes against the spirit of >Lemnian. The text reads "ziazi" (dare I say "clearly"?). ***Yes, you may :) Clearly >In "vanacasial" and "morinaic", Woudhuizen slips in two "Etruscan >spelling" C's which are totally unjustified: the middle "l" is exactly >the same as the final "l" in "vamalasial" (Beekes reads: "vanalasial"). ***There is very clearly a M, not a N, in 'vamalasial', you must admit, looking at the drawing in both Beekes and Woudhuizen.. **I must say that ALL these 'inverted L' signs are nastily close to each other - also the one in Holaiz on side A! It has not the small 'roof' as on side B. Thus one has on side A only Ls [small roof] and on side B only Cs [big roof]. But as the name Holai appears on both sides, there are two options: a) There are no Cs in the text at all, and L is written inconsistently on both sides [on side A with small, on side B with big roof] b) The C and L are written consistently with large vs. small roof [and incidentely the one appears only on side B, the other on side A], and the big roof in Holai on side B is an error. I guess you choose a, Woudhuizen b [he doesn't clearly states so; and in this case it should be 'vanacasiac']. Neither option seems totally satisfactory. The whole problem lies in the Greek variants of the script: In Argos the C [G in Greek case] was written as inverted L with big sloping roof [in Ionia the roof was straight], while in Ionia and Corinth the L was written thus [see: B.F. Cook - Greek inscriptions, British Museum]. So I also do not see why the straight roof in 'eptesio' is rendered as P and not C, if the sloping roof must be L [in all Greek scripts, the P had a gutter at the end of the roof, so to speak :)]. So in my eyes it is a mess anyhow - what we would need is person without any interest in the text, but with a vast knowledge of old alfabets, being locked up in a room with a microscope and the original stela for a day or two...and then come up with a judgement on the L/C/P s. For now, the jury seems out... >The connection with Greek (w)anaks "king, leader" does not hold, I >think. >3. A. evistho Zeronaith aker tavarzio > B. Zeronaith evistho toveronarom haralio > "he held? at Serona ? governorship municipial? >comments: Woudhuizen doesn't really understand these passages, and >neither do I. There may indeed be a connection with the Etruscan >magistracy "teverath". >4. B. Zivai Eptezio arai tiz thoke > "Sivai (son) of Epte for community this erected" >"phoke" or "thoke" has been discussed. I think "eptezio" can be >connected with "tavarzio" and "haralio", **Agreed, rather likely they are a group >and this -io ending would to me >seem the likeliest equivalent of the Etr. past tense -ce. I guess. ***Or, looking at their alfabets, Lemn. -o = Etr -u , and thus rather Lemn -io = Etr -u [= Beekes: participium perf.]. They also could indicate titles - if you look at the number of professions/titles in Etr. ending in -u . However, note the suffixes seems rather -zio and -lio! Woudhuizen regards it an adjectival formation -azio /-alio, which has a perfect pendant in Etruscan -as(i)/-al(i), that also alternate! I think this is very likely indeed. Cf Beekes p. 101-102 for original *-asi/-ali >[thues = own?] I expect Latin funerary inscriptions also to use >"pater suus" sometimes. And, as I said, it fits in the Pyrgi bilingual. >It would be interesting to do a search for t(h)u(v)- in Pallottino's TLE >(Testimonia Linguae Etruscae, AFAIK the last important scholarly book to >be written in Latin [but there's really very little of it]), to see if >it occurs elsewhere. **After reflecting, I retract 50% of my support :-} 1) I only now realize you are following Beekes who thinks that 'mech thuta' = 'pecunia sua'. But the text supplies no real basis for such an equation! Moreover, his suggestion clashes with his own notion of 'mech rasna' = 'res publica'[>republic]. And you cannot ride two horses... The Latin 'res' [=matter, case, state of affairs] did have a *secundary* meaning of 'capital, money' in some [fixed?] expressions [like 'res familiaris'], but to just go transfering that into the Etruscan seems far too speculative. More natural is Woudhuizen's: 'mech thuta' = 'mech rasna', as the word 'tuthi/tuti/tuthiu/tutiu/tutina' = "of the state, of the people; public" is generally accepted, thanks to Umbrian 'touta/tuta'="people, state", Lycian 'tuta', and general IE *teuta ='people' [like in the Germanic Teutones, Mysian Teuthrania]. So -a is nom. ["state, people"], -i is gen. ["of the state, public"]. Only the first 'th' is a problem, but as also the second th alternates with t, I do not feel this is a big problem. 2) If 'thuta' in Pyrgi means "[from?, out of] his own", and 'thues' in TLE 619 means "for his/their own", then the root seems rather 'thu-'. And in the Etr system of declension this would get: nom. gen/abl. dat. acc. loc. thua thu(e)s thue thu(e)n thu(e)i Making the -ta inexplainable? The 'thues' of TLE 619 would fit. Of course there exist 'thui' = 'here' [common on graves: "here rests.."] which could be the locativus of thu-? So thu- being a pronoun of some kind?? Pronoun of place? [if such a thing exists] 'thues sians' = "for this.......here"?? Well, I simply wouldn't know.... But I would only agree with a 'new' notion about 'thues' [whatever its exact meaning; 'new' in it not being 'two'/'one'], but not in your linking it upo with 'thuta'! >True, "Sun" is usil (IE *sa:wel- as everybody knows by now), and the Sun >goddess (!) is Ca(u)tha (Might be a Greek loan, cf. Lat. cauterium, < >Grk kaute:rion "branding iron", from kaiein "to burn"). ***The latter is an interesting and original suggestion. Beekes only records the gloss *kautam = solis oculum "eye of the sun" as the Etruscan name for the millefolium flower. Is there no 'higher' level [PIE] for the Greek word 'kaioo'[<*kawjoo]? So it does not have to be a borrowing..... >> What is the basis of your notion of 'snuiaph'? Only this text and its >> context? >Yes. All I can say is that -aph looks like an ending, and so snuiaph >"feels" more like "greater" than like "equal", which I think are the >only two general translations which are adequate at that place. Again >something to look up in TLE. ***Perhaps that "greater than" ending is also present in the numerals semph, cezp, nurph = 7,8,9 ?? But i do not see how exactly: 1) sa = six - > sa-aph - semph = one more than six = 7, but ciz=3th -> ciz-aph = cezp then would be 9? while generally accepted as 8. 'nurph' remains unexplained. 2) Or perhaps the system works rather like this, with two hands: esl, zal= 1 --> sa=6, the 1st finger on the other hand added, 'finger 1 on the other side' as it were ci=3 ----> cezp = 8, the three fingers on the other hand are added, "3 more" But that leaves semph and nurph unexplained. Although there is a vague ressemblance of these with PIE *septm and *hneun - vague indeed! Oh, what an orgy of speculation! :) I confess "Guilty!".... >>And why do you render ''-chva' as '-count'? And not as a >> collective as Beekes does? >I can't translate a collective. But that's more or less what I meant by >"-count". I couldn't just translate it as a plural, not after having >insisted to you that the plural was -(a)r :-) < > apparantly it is confession-time <:-) regards, Aayko Eyma
In article <19961109183200.NAA19303@ladder01.news.aol.com>, grooveyou@aol.com says... >fasion that I sted before.I will not even mention the historical murder >record of the genetically inferior, less pigmented peoples of the earth. If we're so "genetically inferior" why aren't the "genetically superior" more pigmented people running things? Stopping us? Survival of the fittest baby ... nature don't lie. Genetic superiority if there is such thing is evidenced by success ... not failure.Return to Top
>100714.1346@compuserve.com (GuR) wrote: >>Mr. Velikovski made in his book "The people of the sea" the statemant, >>that the Egyptian Pharao Ramses III. has not lived in the 1200BC, but >>around 375BC. Together with this statements he arrangend the sequence >>of the Egyptian kings since the Hyksos in a new way. >> >>I have never heard, if his sequence has been proved with >>radioncarbon, thermoluminescens or any other physical method, or if >>his ideas found their way to Egyptology. ***No they didn't. Only his notion that the Dark Ages could be fake has had followers in the profession: *James et al - Centuries of Darkness, 1991, isbn 0-224-02647-x * Rohl - A Test of Time, 1995, isbn 0-7126-5913-7 Both have received more serious attention than Velikovsky did, and generated a lot of debate, but they are not followed by the majority [99.9%?] of historians. Note that Rohl properly acknowleges Velikovsky's pre-runnership in this No-Dark- Ages idea, but James et al. are shamefully silent [while even the cover of their book is virtually the same as Velikovsky's "Ramses II!] Both chronologies agree with Velikosvsky's on two points: - no Dark Ages, shortening of Lybian Dynasties - Exodus at end of the 13th Dyn, ca. 1450, start of Late Brons But the disagree on these points: - as they do not make the Hyksos period as lenghty as Velikovsky, their 18 dyn is dated differently: between 1300-1050 [James] and 1200-950 BC [Rohl] - the 19th and 20th dynasty just follow the 18th: 1050-825 BC [James] and 950-? BC [Rohl) So they do not accept Velikovsky's dating and suggestions for the 18-21 th dynasties. The point of the successiveness of 18-19-20 dyn is very important: it is well established by Egyptian genealogies. So also the 'neo-velikovskians' of theReturn to Top[CAH] society do not follow Velikovsky in his theories about the 19 th and 20th dynasty! - they hold on to his work about the 18th dynasty and the shortening of the Dark Ages - as a result the 19th+20th dyn fall about 860-700 BC. So you see, there are at least 5 competing chronologies around: A- the , having High Low varieties B- the , having 1 James et al 2 Rohl varieties C- the , having 1 'moderated' - CAH 2 'pure' - Velikovsky himself varieties They form a spectrum in the order they are listed, in regard to the dating of the 19th dynasty: from high to low: A-B1-B2-C1-C2 And recently a 6th one is coming up at the horizon D - the being based on -the notion that icecore and dendrological evidence shows a major vulcanic event about 1650-1625 -many want to link that with the Thera erruptian -the Thera eruptian is archaeologically linked with the start of the 18th dyn. Meaning that this would not be a shortening of the Conventinal Chron, as in the cases B and C, but a lenghtening.... An equally if not more 'nightmarish' idea....:) Chronologies by the dozen - What a mess, uuh? :) I hope this gave an overview/impression. regards A.K. Eyma
On Fri, 15 Nov 1996 19:23:29 GMT, chiksika@tir.com (chiksika) wrote: >XinaReturn to Topwrote: > >>There was no "Flood" of the bible. There is NO archeological, >>geological, or biostratographic evidence. Next.... > > While I have no intention of involving myself in this "debate" and >admire your dueling with a closed mind who seems to think they have a >direct channel to god him/herself,many cultures have a flood >myth/story. Chinese,Sumerian,Chaldean,Mayan,Norse, and Native American >cultures all have flood sories that have been handed down.My native >tribe(Shawnee) has a flood story. Now I don't intend to sit here and >call this absolute "proof",however my personal studies have shown IN >MOST CASES there is at least a certain amount of truth in this type of Rivers flood. Most cultures have spent a lot of time around rivers. See below. >data. At the end of the last ice age there was a tremendous amount of >water which was either directly melted into the various bodies of >water or through evaporation found it's way into the atmosphere. I >find the POSSIBILITY of a flood type event highly probable.Also keep There is no possibility that the flood event described in the bible (Global, lasted for a year, covered all land) happened. The described ark could not have held all the species of life that existed 4,000 to 5,000 years ago. There is no geological evidence. There is no archaeological evidence, there is no paleontological evidence. >in mind that while biblically the involvment was >world-wide,potentially the involvement coukld have been limited to the >worlds various coastal plains and low lying areas! At the time little >was truly known as to what the world even was;) I Do agree with you >wholeheartedly though on the various dates and ages;o) The end of the ice age is not a good candidate for this though. The end of the ice age "flood" was not sudden and did not recede. Apparently, there was a major flood in the fertile crescent that was the foundation of the Gilgamesh (borrowed by the Hebrews for Noah) flood story. >Thanks for my interruption > >Gerry b >Red Wings Fan >
Pan of AnthroxReturn to Topwrote in article <328B5555.55B3@tnp.com>... > TJ wrote: > > > > Jukka Korpela wrote: > > Speaking of human remains...Remember the freeze-dried bronze-age man > > found in the Alps a few years back. PBS did a once over lightly special > > on him. I assume much of the research has been done, but where can I > > find an account of the 'findings' on this guy? Any good books out, or > > articles? With near-morbid fascination of the very old, tj > > i saw a book on it at a Barnes and Nobles bookstore in new York City. > One does exist.. i know that! > For the Iceman you could also try http://dm2.uibk.ac.at/c/c5/c504/iceman_en.html
Emmett Jordan (jordan.emmett.electron@worldnet.att.net) wrote: : George Bush and his military planners tried to turn Los Angeles : into Alexandria the Second with nuclear tests in Nevada. They did : succeed in inducing one earthquake that experts claimed was separate : from the explosion, but LA did not slide into the sea. If someone : runs a test closer though, it will. Oh come on, if George Bush had really done that, he'd still be in office today. Focus groups have indicated that sliding LA into the ocean is a big vote getter, particularly in the rest of California. It's expected to be a high-priority plank in Pete Wilson's 2000 presidential campaign. Ben B. buckner@enuxsa.eas.asu.eduReturn to Top
hornowl@islandnet.com wrote: >(snipped a bit of great and helpful information) > Thus, Earth is probably 4 to 4.5 billion years old. > > I hope that this helps a bit. Yes, it does. Thank you very much, Rob! Regards! ChristinaReturn to Top
Brian M. Scott wrote: > >[P's wild horse and 2 species of asses removed] > ^^^^^ > More, more! > > (I'm sorry, but one gets few opportunities as golden as this!) Believe me, it gets better. The two species in question are *Equus asinus*, the true ass, and *Equus hemionus*, the onager, or Asiatic half-ass. What could be better? ObSciLang: For mystified non-North-Americans, the words "ass" and "arse" (buttocks) are homophonous in the U.S. and Canada, and are normally spelled the same way, namely "ass". -- John Cowan cowan@ccil.org e'osai ko sarji la lojbanReturn to Top
miles@mail.iserv.net (Mr. Pink) wrote: >While researching in school I had read a book that mentioned the fact >that Romans had steam powered elevators?!? >Is this true, was it a bad dream, can anyone shed some light? >thanx >-just a fan of the roman empire I have heared of toy-steam-engines and temple-steam-opperated-doors, but never of elevators. What is your reference? Joep Orbons ------------------------------------------------------------------ Joep Orbons, P.O. box 1614, NL 6201 BP MAASTRICHT, The Netherlands E-Mail: jorbons@xs4all.nl Website: http://www.xs4all.nl/~jorbons/home.html ------------------------------------------------------------------Return to Top
mcv@pi.net (Miguel Carrasquer Vidal) wrote: >ayma@tip.nl wrote: >>Whatever 'thu' and 'esal' would be, 1 and 2 or 2 and 1, the last does >>have a Lydian equivalent 'isl-' . >Rereading this, I don't understand what you're saying. LydianReturn to Topis >a numeral of unknown meaning? Must it be 1 or 2 or are other >alternatives possible? ***Yes, alternatives possible - unknown numeral. My only point was: this means that also in this case Etr. seems to link up with Anatolia, and if we ever find some clear proof on the Lydian numeral, it could solve the thu/esal puzzle - well, 'solve' is too strong a word, likely. > If so, may I suggest "1,000"? I'm not sure >whether Lydian shares with Luwian the sound law /ki-/ > /i-/ (e.g. Hitt. >kessari- "hand", Luw. issari-, isri-; Greek kheir, IE *ghesr-), but if >it does, the word may be cognate with IE *gheslo- "1,000", Skt. sahasram >(*sm-gheslom "one thousand"), Greek khilioi (*ghesli-), Lat. mi:lle >(*smi: (gh)sli: ?). ***Interesting suggestion. However, the Lydain 'isl' is found "as indication of the day in a month in the dating formula of the Lydian- Aramaic bilingual inscription from the Sardis necropolis" [Woudhuizen, in Talanta]. So this would rather mean a number between 1-30! The text is Lyd.no.1 and is discussed at length by Kahle and Sommer, in Kleinasiatische Forschungen 1, 1927, p.18-86. I do not have that article. Woudhuizen does mention in a note that the date in the Aramaic is "day 5 of Marheshuan", and in the Lydian it is "day -isl- of Bakillis" - but unfortunately it is not known how the Aramaic and Lydian months did 'cover' each other [likely not, cf. Greek/Hebrew]. >Further reflections on the Etruscan/Lemnian numerals: >Mayani (not a very reliable source) says there are also ancient dice >arranged like: >1-2, 3-4, 5-6 ***[fixed difference of 1] >and: >2-4,1-6, 3-5 ***[climing addition? - 6,7,8 ] >The first arrangement is useless for the thu=2 thesis, the second one >would lead to: >1=zal, 2=thu, 3=ci, 4=huth, 5=sa, 6=mach. >I'm not very happy with this arrangement, but, assuming we can trust >Mayani on this, it does have one thing going for it: it is an attested >dice arrangement, which the "Beekes dice" is not (or he would have said >so, I presume). ****Actually the oldest dices found in Italy do show a variety of combinations. Woudhuizen refers to a dice "presently in the Villa Giulia collection [nr. 13.350] which may serve as an analogy for the distribution pattern 4-2, 6-3, 5-1" [ With reference to Slotty in Archiv Orientalni 1937, no 9, 379-404.] So here there is a climing substraction/difference - 2,3,4. All in all think we must conclude, that there was a big variety in dice arrays around, and that the famous Etr. dice is not really a help for determining the Etr. numerals. >So, to give them all (in Beekes order): >1. thu (zal? "Mayani dice") >2. zal (thu? "Mayani dice") >3. ci ***100% certain thanks to the Pyrgi tablets >4. huth (sa? "modern dice") ***huth in my eyes 100% certain thanks to Huttenia=Tetrapolis, and the painting with demons in Tarquinia [Beekes p.54] >5. mach (sa? "Mayani dice") >6. sa (huth? "modern dice", mach? "Mayani dice") >7. semph >8. cezp >9. nurph >10. sar >20. zathrum >30. cialch >40. ? >50. muvalch >60. sealch >70. semphalch >80. cezpalch >90. ? >100. ? >Upon reflection, I would assign muvalch to 50, with Beekes, despite the >irregularity (one would expect machalch). ***Why not 40? I do not see on which your reflections are based! Remember Luwian 'mauwa' = 4 , from IE *mei, from which also Greek 'meioo'= 'to reduce, diminish". mauwa ->muva=4, muva+alch=40 In this context Woudhuizen gives an interesting suggestion as to 'mach': *IE *penkwe='5'----> Hittite panku="assembly" * IE *megh, Hittite mekki ="numerous", Luwian *mai, maya-(n)ti, Lycian mi-nti ="assembly" ----> Etruscan mech = "assembly, league" and by analogy 'mach' =5 The full references to other scholars are in Talanta 1988 p.119; the Etr. conclusions are of course from Woudhuizen. So it would seem that in Anatolian 'muva'/4 meant "one less than a full hand" and 'mach'/5' "a full hand, all fingers assembled". How 'muva' came to be replaced by 'huth' for the lower numeral [4], but was retained in the larger numeral [40] is not clear. [Note: Beekes gives 'mech' as meaning 'matter, case', but that is a mere guess by seeking analogy of Etr. 'mech rasna' with Latin 'res publica' ; Woudhuizen would translate 'Etruscan senate'.] >"Twenty" is zathrum, an >independent formation (one could see za- as "2 [Beekes]" or as "10", and >-th(r)um as "2 [Woudhuizen]", of course, but the point is that it >doesn't end in -alch). ***I suppose it is fully independent. I do not think *zar-thunz ["ten the second time"] >zathrum sounds very likely f.e, or *zal-thrum[?] "two-?". Woudhuizen's opinion in this case I would not know. I do not know what 10 and 20 are in Luwian - you? > If "20" is different, then "40" is likely to be >as well (and "20" doesn't even have to be, as Russian dvadcat', >tridcat', sorok "20, 30, 40" show). The number "40" is probably hiding >somewhere in the Etrsucan corpus unidentified, and it doesn't end in >-alch. ***You of course meant "the nummer 50 is hiding".... I do not feel your 'then' is very imperative. >The ending -alch (-alchv(e)i in Lemnian) obviously bears no relationship >to sar "10". Mayani notes the similarity with Lithuanian -lik (and one >might add Germanic -lif), from IE *-leikw "to be left". In connection >with the labiovelars, Lemnian -(a)lchv- would make an almost perfect fit >phonetically. But what makes no sense at all is that Baltic and >Germanic use these suffixes for 11 (one left=eleven), 12 (two >left=twelve), 13 (Lith. try-lika), ..., 19 (Lith. devynio-lika). I just >don't see what "30" could be three left of... three hands left >of zero?? ***No, I fully agree. From the Lemnian I would say the older Tyrrhenian ending was *-alchva, meaning that likely the collective suffix -chva was used, and the adjective ending -al. So the collective here replacing 'sar'=10. ci.al-chva = 'thir.th-count', i.e.3 full pairs of hands. Like English twen-ty, thir-ty [-ty=-tig=ten] >A curious thing about Etruscan counting is that the numbers 17, 18 and >19 are "ciem zathrum, eslem zathrum, thunem zathrum" [the last two in >reverse order for Woudhuizen], i.e. 3 from 20, 2 from 20, 1 from 20, >with an -(e)m suffix, which recalls IE *mei- "less", Hitt. meiu- "4". >27..29 etc. work in the same way. > It's really silly of me that I hadn't >noticed this before on the Lemnos stele, but what it says is actually: >"aviz sialchveiz maraz-m (aviz)". Does that make 65? The connection >"mara-" ~ "mach" is not a very strong one phonetically. Could the -m >here be Etruscan -m "minus"? If so, mara- would have to be 1, 2 or 3. >Maybe 4? Certainly not 5. Amazingly, I am inclined to see an >Anatolianism here, where even Woudhuizen doesn't: > I would go for 56 >(60-4). Not that I'm so happy with Luw. mawa ~ > Lemn. mara "4", but 1, 2 >or 3 make even less sense... Anyway, the guy with the shield looks more >like 56 than 65 to me (of course if "sialchv-" is really 40 or 50 >[depending on the dice], that would mean 36 [too young] or 46; or 45 or >55, if -m is simply "and"...). ***I agree with the unsatisfactory analysis of 'maras'. Could it be that the parts should be seperated? Why else would the word 'avis' "years" be repeated? So more like: "For Siva, 60 years (old); and at/for -mara- years he has been ....[city govenor].....for/on behalf of Holaie of Phokai" -i is dativus in Luwian/Lycian. the -m is enclitic, and in Hittite as well as in Etruscan a slightly adversative conjunction aomai as you suggest related to Etr. am(u)- "to be" 'mara' could mean 'many' or 'half' or whatever - anything, as long as it is no numeral 1-10 :-). Cf. the indication 'masu' in Etruscan in combination with 'naper' [= a measurement of land] that must be some quantative notion, Beekes [p.71] thinks 'a half' . I suppose r>s, or s>r [rhotacism?] would be less problematic as r>ch or w>r?? >Some more Etruscan numbers: >TLE 136: >Larth Arnthal Plecus clan Ramthasc Apatrual eslz zilachnthas avils >thunem muvalchls lupu. >Larth, son of Arnth Plecu and Ramtha Apatrua, twice having been zilach, >died 49 years (old). [once? 48? 38?] >TLE 171: >Avle Alethnas Arnthal cla(n) Thanchvilusc Ruvfial zilach[nce] spurethi >apasi svalas marunuchva cepen tenu eprthnevc eslz te[nu] (eprthieva >eslz) >"Avle Alethna, son of Arnth and Thanchvil Rufia; he was zilach living in >the town of his fathers(?); he functioned as `marun'-ship `cepen' and he >held the `pyrtan'-ship twice (twice `pyrtan')" [once?] >The above two I feel speak against eslz being "once". The following has >`thunz': >TLE 324: >Tute Larth anc farthnache Tute Arnthals Hathlials Ravnthu zilchnu cezpz >purts'vana thunz lupu avils esals cezpalchls >"Larth Tute. Aand he was born of Arnth Tute (and) Ravnthu Hathli. He >was zilach 8 times and once pyrtan. Died 82 years (old)." [twice? 81?] >The translation "once" is saved by the preceding "8 times". ***I think you mean that the 'pyrtan' was the primus inter pares of the 'zilach' magistrates. However, I do not see why in the above two texts [136/171] it could not read "he was once zilach' Such terms of office being carefully recorded. 1- zilach = praetor - found in writing variants [zilath/zilach etc. with varyting endings]; according to Best&Woudhuizen; a title 'zelu'/'zilekuna' is used in Cyprian Linear D for some maritime officer. In Lydian it appears as 'silukalid' and borrowed in Greek Anatolian colonies as a title 'zelarchos' [hybrid with Greek -archos]. Here btw the Luwian traits are rather clear: a)Luw. ura="great" ->uranuwa ="to make great" the factitive morpheme -nuwa being used to verbalise nouns and adjectives. b) Luw. chantawat ="king" -> chantawatachi ="kingship" the morpheme -achi being used to distinguish the magistrate in person from the impersonal magistracy And this is mirrored in Etruscan: a) zilat(h) = praetor --> zilac(h) = praetorship b) zilach = praetor --> zilachnuce = "he entered/fulfilled the praetorship" So -ach < -achi, and -nu-/ -nv < -nuwa- This added suffix -n- in verbs is also mentionned by Beekes p.104, but he doesn't give an explanation for it. 2- pyrtan = praetor maximus - found in several writing variants [pruth-, purts-, with varying endings; also in Latinized 'Porsenna'], and having an Anatolian origin: the Greek city-states on the west Anatolian coastal strip borrowed it as a title 'prytanis' , in Cyprian Linear D a title 'purarura' [*purat-ura, ura=great] seems to appear [according to Best&Woudhuizen;], and in Ugarit a title 'chupurtanuri' was used [again uri=great]. So in both cases the titles seem to be indigenous to the Anatolian area. >TLE 325: >Tutes S'ethre Larthal clan Pumplialch Velas zilachnu ciz zilcti >purts'vavcti lupu avils machs zathrums >"Sethre Tute, son of Larth and Vela Pumpli. He was zilach 3 times. Died >being zilac and pyrtan 25 years (old)." >Beekes tries to explain this very young three times zilach and even >pyrtan (an even higher function) by blaming it on Roman domination: the >Etruscan dignataries had no real power anymore. I don't know. I would >buy "quatre-vingt" if mach could be '4'... ***I agree with your scepsis. You would have expected a guy of at least 20+3x5?=35. Could we only buy: zathrum = our hidden 50 [or 40].... So he being 55. But we can't as the Liber Linteus makes the conclusion '20' inevitable. :( In that calender 'huthis zathrumis' cannot be anything else than '24' - so 'machs zathrums' must be '25' - i fear. >On this unsettling thought, I'll leave it for now... idem. regards, Aayko Eyma Holland
mcv@pi.net (Miguel Carrasquer Vidal) wrote: >mcv@pi.net (Miguel Carrasquer Vidal) wrote: >>[Lemnos stele:] >I forgot to mention that Holaie and Sivai are almost certainly proper >names. >Herodotus (4.152) talks of a Samian captain Kolaios who discovered >Tartessos in Spain. In 1.163, however, he had attributed the discovery >of Tartessos to the Phocaeans. ***Woudhuizen does refer to that. But I believe he missed your link for Sivai? [couldn't refind]: >Cyrus H. Gordon in "Forgotten Scripts" mentions the Psychro Stone (300 >BC, Crete), which reads in Greek letters: > EPITHI > ZE^THANTHE^ > ENETE^ PAR SIPHAI >and in Minoan script: > i-pi-ti (or i-ne-ti) >Gordon reads this as Semitic, of course: "this stone (he-piti) which I >have given (z-yatan-ti^), Enete son of Siphai (Enete bar Sipai)". >Doesn't seem unreasonable. In any case, he mentions that the name Sipai >(s-p-y) occurs in I Chronicles 20:4. I don't seem to have a Bible... ***Foei! ;), but I checked for you: it reads "Sippai, one of the decendants of the Refaites" who fought in the army of the Filistines. The link Filistines - Pelasgians is often made, and although the Refaites were non-Philistean but an 'autochtonian' people of Palestine [Genesis 14:5, 15:2] - a race on the verge of extinction [in Ugarit the word 'refaim' is used for 'spirits of the ancestors', if I recall well.] - it would be logical if he had a Philistinian name, when living and fighting among them. So the name Sippai *could* well be of Aegean origin! And thus not only in sound linking up with Cretan Siphai and Lemnian Sivai! >Murina is a Lemnian town. Serona probably was another (most likely the >old name for the location where the stele was found, Kaminia, as >suggested by Woudhuizen). **Woudhuizen [Linguistica Tyrrhenica I] points to toponyms in the area with similar elements as in Serona: Zerynthon on Samothrake, Halisarne and Sarnaca in the Aeolic hinterland. There was not only a Myrina on Lemnos but also in the Phokaia area. regards, Aayko EymaReturn to Top
CyberGuyReturn to Topwrote: > Funny thing that the language in the Pyranees has NO >INDOEUROPEAN ROOTS OF ANY KIND WHATSOEVER In that case you must find it hilarious that the language in Finland has NO INDOEUROPEAN ROOTS OF ANY KIND WHATSOEVER. By the time you find that the language in Hungary NO INDOEUROPEAN ROOTS OF ANY KIND WHATSOEVER you must be falling about all over the place with laughter....... And then there's.... No - he'd die laughing if I gave another example... ---- Robbie Langton Hey, this web thing's immense - robbie@roblang.demon.co.uk must be one HELL of a spider!
Miguel Carrasquer Vidal (mcv@pi.net) wrote: : cboulis@mail1.sas.upenn.edu (Chrisso Boulis) wrote:Return to Top: >We then devolved into giant sparrows carrying bananas : >all over the world, in addition to coconuts! Or maybe they : >specialized in bananas and pineapples in the Roman periods and : >progressed to coconuts in the Middle Ages. : Giant sparrows would have been well advised to shun Rome like the plague : whenever there was an imperial banquet (I guess that means permanently). Hmmm. . . yes, they would have made an appropriate Gustum or First Course. Hmmmm. Maybe the chicken wasn't chicken but Giant Roman Banana-toting Sparrows!!! Hmmm. :) C.E.S. Boulis UPMAA
PLEASE see Betsy Hill's artic le in Nawpa Pacha, ca. 1972, and related pubs by other Columbia investigators, Don Lathrap, etc! Some are cited im my Amer Anthro article on Diffusionism and biological analogy in 1979....... The Jomon-like pottery is interesting---but it evolves out of earlier local styles in situ!!! --John R. Cole (now at fcattus@aol.com)Return to Top
In article <56il85$3gk@fridge-nf0.shore.net>, whittet@shore.net (Steve Whittet) wrote: * 1.) Mans arrival in North America was about 12,000 years BP * Though earlier dates were claimed some decades back, none of the * 30 some odd early claims in the Americas have remained uncontroversial. My understanding is that this isn't quite correct. I think there are authenticated remains in Alaska earlier than this -- my understanding is that humans lived in Alaska for some time, but were unable to proceed until the retreat of the ice sheet slightly more than 12000 Y BP opened an ice-free corridor allowing passage south. Eric MankinReturn to Top
www.kfu.com/~pharveyReturn to Top
In article <56gmto$k7r@scream.auckland.ac.nz>, drc@antnov1.auckland.ac.nz writes >(A) Human language only began when people started living in cities. > >to the less startling > >(B) Vocabularies got larger when people started living in cities. > >Am I right about this change of position? > Only as long as he believes this latter position to be tenable. -- Alan M. Dunsmuir "Time flies like an arrow - Fruit flies like a banana" --- Groucho Marx (as used by Noam Chomsky)Return to Top
IM a student,age of 16,serious,patient and fascinated by archeologie.Im living in montreal,canada. Id like to get a summer job,working on archeologie project,in any country of this world. If you want me to help you this summer,feel free to mail me or leave a message to this newsgroups.If you mail me,dont forget to say that the mail is for Charles Perreault. Thank youReturn to Top
In articleReturn to Toppiotrm@umich.edu (Piotr Michalowski) writes: >I am not so sure that it is "easier" to learn Biblical Hebrew; that is a >personal matter. Some people learn a living language much faster than a >written one in a new writing system. In any case, vocabulary is not the >hardest part of learning a language. The volume of words in Biblical Hebrew >and modern cannot be readily compared, as the written text has a limited >stylistic and rhetorical horizon and cannot be used for evaluating the full >vocabulary of spoken language in antiquity. One would have to compare the vocabulary in a modern compilation of literature with the vocabulary of the Hebrew bible. It is true that there are certain standardized expressions that are frequent within certain books, so it is easier to read because one does not encounter the kind of variety that is common in modern Hebrew literature. It is also true that in ancient literature in particular, the prose category was a late invention, with literature having to belong to a particular genre to be created at all. The study of literary genres is one of your fields of expertise, is it not? >>At the time that the Sumerians invented writing (ca. 3200 B.C.), they had a >>vocabulary somewhere between 1,000 and 2,000 words. And a number of these >>words describe Bronze Age inventions, so earlier the word count was smaller. >That is quite incorrect. The first writing system is not a full represenation >of any spoken language, but a new semiotic system. It has hardly any verbs >and was devised to notate only a limited official set of transactions. Actually, I found 1,119 distinct Sumerian logograms, and have seen the estimate that by the Old Babylonian period 60 percent of Sumerian words consisted of compounds, making a total known vocabulary by the Old Babylonian period of 2800 words. >There are various models of language development that are not all based on the >original tree model and quite a bit of discussion on language contact, >diffusion, etc. The incredible explosion of Creole studies is also linked to >an interest in language "creation", but to set up the models of IE from the >last century as a straw man and to insist that any older theory, by >definition, must be wrong, is not much of an improvement. Studies of creolization, which is the process of expanding the structural and stylistic range of a pidgin language to make it into the mother tongue of a speech community, can shed light in an indirect way on the process by which early languages have gone from primitive to modern. However, this is still only looking at how languages arise in an already speaking population. In the current paradigm most linguists do not consider the process by which a population went from nonspeaking to speaking. This is another case of projecting the present onto the past, thinking that because all humans now speak, all humans have always spoken and therefore the transition process is not one with which linguists feel they have to deal. Regards, John Halloran
krishnanand Khambadkone (krishna@inventa.com) wrote: : I happened to stumble upon an article recently that 90% of all the : artefacts from the famed Kabul museum have been looted by the Afghan : militia and sold to private collectors. The remaining 10% being large : statues mainly buddhist have been blasted to pieces. : It greatly pains me when I read such articles. We can never recreate : history. Once it is destroyed, it is gone forever. We can however : mass produce zillions of modern equipment such as cars, planes, guns : etc. So True! : Isn't there any International watchdog commitee that oversees : archeological treasures. Yes and No. IFAR - International Foundation for Art Research publishes a listing of stolen art and antiquities and maintains a database as well. The emphasis is on art, but they are very good at getting information out into the appropriate public arena. The worst part about the Kabul Museum is the magnitude of the damage. Not only were historically important objects stolen and destroyed but the documentation was also destroyed. The Museum was hit several times by mortar fire. I spoke with several people working on this problem, several years ago. They were trying to indentify ways of getting this information out. They are succeeding, but it's slow. C.E.S. Boulis UPMAAReturn to Top
rejohnsn@blue.weeg.uiowa.edu wrote: > > Last night the PBS show "The New Explorers" dealt with late Anasazi > settlement in the Four Corners region of the American Southwest. They > followed a husband-and-wife archaeology team as they sought evidence to > explain why people started building cliff dwellings between A.D. 1250 and > 1300. > > Before I go into my rant, let me say that I have a particular beef > against this show in general because they hold up "the Scientific Method" > as an icon of objective thought. To give them credit, they do seem to > understand that the SM is a process, but the way they illustrate it > reifies popular (mis)conceptions about the nature of fact, theory, > induction, and deduction. > > Another thing they do is focus on researchers whose work can be seen as > going against the mainstream, but, journalism being what it is, the > grey-shaded nature of such research is reconstituted in black-and-white > terms: the renegade researchers doggedly pursuing Truth, opposed to the > dogmatic inertia of the 'party line'. > > This is what particularly bugged me about last night's show. A little > background: the Anasazi, who built the great pueblos of northern New > Mexico and the Cliff Dwellings of southern Colorado and northeastern > Arizona, appear to have vanished between A.D. 1200 and 1300. Let me > rephrase that -- evidence of large-scale architecture, long-distance > trade, and population nucleation vanishes at that time. The question of > Why? was a major impetus for southwestern archaeology (from the > perspective of a young, westward-expanding country, the disappearance of > a budding civilization which, had it survived, may have given that > country the heroic past its ego so desperately wanted was a major concern). > > Current answers seem to point the finger at environmental change as the > culprit. Environmental evidence suggests that the two or three centuries > prior (i.e., A.D. 900-1200) had unusually good growing conditions, which > allowed the cultural elaboration that included massive architectural > programs. When the droughts started returning ca. A.D. 1250, so the > story goes, the problems of farming drew people away from these 'extra' > activities, and the heyday of the Anasazi ended. > > Underlying this has always been the possibility of conflict -- that has > been a suggestion for decades, and each generation of archaeologists have > had to deal with it. > > Then along comes "The New Explorers," following some archaeologists > interested in the conflict theory, and lo and behold the possibility of > "war" becomes a brand-new theory that hasn't gotten a lot of support > because it is un-p.c., so "TNE" is going to show the indisputable > evidence on national television. > > The problem is, "TNE" misrepresents the current understanding so that > conflict and environmental change appear to be incompatible. This just > ain't so! > > 1. The show ostensibly covered all the Anasazi, but the area actually > covered was a small region around the four corners. They overgeneralized. > > 2. The intial evidence was movement of people away from canyon floors > and into cliff dwellings ca. A.D. 1250. They certainly showed the cliff > dwellings, but they didn't go into whether or not canyon-floor > settlements continued (and I don't personally know). They presented a > biased sample. > > 3. War and environmental change are presented as alternatives. But > think about it: why would people suddenly engage in conflict? Maybe > because environmental change had undermined crop reliability? Granted, > this was mentioned -- but only in the last ten minutes, after the whole > rest of the shoe had been plugging "war". They presented an overly > simplistic causal explanation in an unethical way. > > 4. They hyped "war" rather than conflict. War, as we understand it, is > a particular kind of conflict that is resource-intensive and engaged in > by organized polities out to dominate each other. The kind of conflict > that was likely going on here was raiding. Raiding is not war, and it is > well-documented among Native Americans. It is not, therefore, a major > new discovery. They misrepresented the theory they were documenting. > > 5. This is actually a problem with the archaeologists themselves. A few > mesa-top villages were located that were connected through line-of-sight, > which meant they could signal each other visually. The arkies > interpreted this as a "social" (rather than technological) invention: > the invention of group identity, what we would today call tribes. > HELLO!! Do they SERIOUSLY think it took NINE THOUSAND YEARS for the > concept of group exclusivity to develop?! 'Fraid not, guys: the > circumscription of social groups has been going on for millenia. The > continuing restriction of territories, from the Paleoindians on down, > means that people have been living in increasingly exclusive groups, > membership in which carries rights to local resources, ever since the > Paleoindians moved in. Once land got too crowded for people to live off > the land because nobody had a large enough territory, they settled down > and started farming. As farmland got more scarce, people started making > historical claims to the land they were on: you weren't part of the > group, you couldn't farm there. People developed different forms and > types of artifacts that may have signalled group identity. Contrary to > what those two bozos would have the American public believe, us-them > social distinctions are much, much older than 800 years. Villages that > could signal each other probably represent a defensive alliance rather > than a tribe -- because we know from the ethnohistoric record that tribal > membership does not guarantee cooperation. > > So what probably happened? The environment changed in the 13th century > and the bottom fell out of agriculture. There wasn't enough food to > support the population and the investment in large public monuments. The > long-distance social networks that had supported those activities > disintegrated. In the absence of that cooperation, groups began to raid > former friendly groups to get food, better farmland, or both. Over the > last half-century, the situation continued to decay, and people abandoned > the area in search of (a) safety and (b) better farmland. This is not a > major surprise. There is no evidence of organized warfare. There is no > evidence of genocide, land-hungry expansionist polities, and so on. > > 6. The argument in the show was logically flawed. The show purported to > explore theories for why the Anasazi vanished. They held up warfare as > the emergent best explanation. Unfortunately, the researchers they > followed found conflict to be an explanation for *why people moved onto > cliffs and mesas*, not why the Anasazi vanished. If you pay close > attention, here is the researchers' argument: > > People suddenly moved onto cliffs and mesas. Why? To escape conflict. > Why was there conflict? Environmental decay. That is, environmental > change led to conflic, which caused people to move into hidden spots. > While conflict may have been the immediate reason for the abandonment of > the area, the conflict probably would not have happened had the > environment not gone sour. Ultimately it was environmental change that > was responsible. > > What "TNE" argues, however, is: The Anasazi vanished. Why? "Was it...War?" > This is oversimplistic, unethical journalistic pandering to the Ivory Tower > strawman that our scientifically-illiterate population likes to pummel in > defense of superstition and prejudice. > > The tragedy is that this show perpetuates such misunderstandings in the > guise of documenting the scientific method. Last night did a real > disservice to archaeologists. > > Cheers, > Rebecca Lynn Johnson > Ph.D. stud., Dept. of Anthropology, U Iowa I saw the show too and thought very much the same. One question though, you say >>There is no evidence of organized warfare. There is no evidence of genocide, land-hungry expansionist polities, and so on.<< yet the show seemed to say that there was evidence of whole villages being destroyed and murdered (bashed-in skulls, etc.). Is this true? They seemed to imply that it was for other southwestern sites also. Best Wishes, SteveReturn to Top
>Granules removed from various areas of the skull-like protrusion >have revealed, during microscopic examination, the presence of >Haversian canals (the distinguishing difference between my petrified >bones and your concretions). >In any event, I accept your apology for admitting that you were wrong >about where the specimen came from. >Meanwhile, be prepared to write another apology -- perhaps sooner than >you think -- for recklessly and callously calling The World's Most >Important Fossil a rock. This just has to be the longest lasting load of old rocks so far perpetrated on the archaeology groups in the Net. Again, are these canals that -you- see in the 'skull' the same as the ones in the 'bones' that have so far avoided scrutiny by researchers in the field??? I'll start the ball rolling by calling your --worlds' most important fossil-- as another simple construction of a concretion.Return to Top
In article <564ljb$ol4@news1.io.org>, yuku@io.org (Yuri Kuchinsky) wrote: >George Black (gblack@midland.co.nz) wrote: > >: True : The first problem with such a theory is, of course, even if the >Chinese were : an oceanic seafaring people, they are, as the maps >illustrate :-))) on the : wrong side of the South American landmass. : > >Irrelevant. If they could cross the Pacific, they surely could cross the >isthmus. I have no reference on the subject at the moment but I believe that there were many deaths from Malaria and Yellow fever at the digging of the Panama Canal. Any people unused to the conditions of the area would suffer from those conditions surely. (I know :-)) don't call me surely) >: And a long, long way away. There should be, if the Chinese got to the : >Americas, a number of artifacts that are associated with such a people : >present. > >"Should be" according to you? Argument by omission: invalid. Argument by omission?? When people move from one area to another they take their current technology with them. These movements of people throughout Europe and Asia is proven by the archaeological strata they leave behind. For example: The Chinese left a fair amount of material around the coasts of Japan when they attempted to invade. >"The trail of evidence" from Asia to the Americas has been abundantly >documented in this newsgroup. True. Through the Bering Strait area and, according to some dated sites in America, well before the Chinese were casting fortunes on animal shoulder blades.Return to Top
In article <328CEE15.5C46@ccil.org> John CowanReturn to Topwrites: >Believe me, it gets better. The two species in question are *Equus asinus*, >the true ass, and *Equus hemionus*, the onager, or Asiatic half-ass. Or as we parodied a Russian opera when we were children *, Eugene the Onager, the Wild Ass of Arabia >ObSciLang: For mystified non-North-Americans, the words "ass" and "arse" >(buttocks) are homophonous in the U.S. and Canada, and are normally spelled >the same way, namely "ass". Not quite. There are people in this country who know and use the word "arse" (and many Americans think that this is a development rather than a retention). The use of the word "ass" for "arse" is an example of dysphemism, in which the euphemism has come to have the associations of the original, in this so com- pletely that many native speakers are unaware of the existence of the older term. *Children of an opera singer/director/professor--forgive us our light moments. -- Rich Alderson You know the sort of thing that you can find in any dictionary of a strange language, and which so excites the amateur philo- logists, itching to derive one tongue from another that they know better: a word that is nearly the same in form and meaning as the corresponding word in English, or Latin, or Hebrew, or what not. --J. R. R. Tolkien, alderson@netcom.com _The Notion Club Papers_
mankin@bcf.usc.edu (Eric Mankin) wrote: >In article <56il85$3gk@fridge-nf0.shore.net>, whittet@shore.net (Steve >Whittet) wrote: > >* 1.) Mans arrival in North America was about 12,000 years BP >* Though earlier dates were claimed some decades back, none of the >* 30 some odd early claims in the Americas have remained uncontroversial. > >My understanding is that this isn't quite correct. I think there >are authenticated remains in Alaska earlier than this -- my understanding >is that humans lived in Alaska for some time, but were unable to proceed >until the retreat of the ice sheet slightly more than 12000 Y BP opened >an ice-free corridor allowing passage south. > Eric Mankin From discussions I've seen in the literature, the various sites that turn up in Alaska may not actually be any older than 12,500 y.a. (approximately contemporaneous with Clovis); I think the carbon dating evidence/stratigraphy is still somewhat controversial, but that hardly anyone thinks that there were humans at those sites before 15,000 y.a. Any latest opinions on those Alaskan sites? Jonathan AdamsReturn to Top
In articleReturn to Top, Herdsman writes >This must have been before they moved to New Jersey. > >Maybe back in the Y.A. Tittle Days? > Its back, close the hatches, lock the doors and windows, tim sutter has been thrown out of alt discordia again. -- Shez shez@oldcity.demon.co.uk The 'Old Craft' lady http://www.oldcity.demon.co.uk/ ------------------------------------------------------------------
Group, I would love to find evidence of contact for it would make the world an even richer place for it. Don't those of you who constantly detract understand we are not working under extraordinary conditions simply to prove what has already been learned? Field archaeology is difficult, often hostile, work. It's easy for you detractors to sit back in your ignorance and say we're wrong, we're myopic. If we're so wrong why don't you get off your collective asses and volunteer for projects and help us raise funds? Until you do you're not worthy to even discuss the subject. In fact, why don't some of you take a trip to the library and do some oh soooooo boooooring research? It would be a pleasure to discuss Mesoamerican archaeology with a larger number of informed individuals in this news group. Paul Pettennude Peter van RossumReturn to Topwrote in article ... > In article <56gn91$ncl@beetle.privatei.com> bartjean@henge.com (Bart Torbert/Jean Dupree) writes: > >In article <01bbd0ed$09fca740$b494d9ce@tekdiver>, tekdiver@ix.netcom.com > >says... > >>Yes, Yuri. David is a Master of Shang script as well. Why don't you > >>email him up at Harvard? He shares space with an interesting fellow named > >>Ian Graham. I don't know if you've heard of either David or Ian. My guess > >>is you probably haven't since you posed the rather uninformed question > >>below. The fact that you did pose the question strongly suggests that you > >>ought to do more reading before you do all of the writing you have done. > >>There's an old proverb about remaining silent and keeping people unsure > >>of your ignorance as opposed to broadcasting it to the world as you seem > >>intent on doing. > [deletions] > >>Paul Pettennude, Ph.D. > >>Maya Underwater Research Center > > > >Watch it Yuri! This guy is dangerous! He is packing a !!!!PH.D!!!!. He > >might get angry at you and get a couple of his !!!EXPERT!!! friends to > >throw !!!BIG WORDS!!! at your. OOOOH THAT WOULD HURT! > > Better yet he might just throw out gobs of facts backed up by extensive > field research which seems to document that the cultures of Mesoamerica > developed without any significant outside impacts. > > >I am sure that Dr. Pettennude is just trying to be oh-so politically > >correct. > > I think Dr. Pettennude is simply trying to be FACTUALLY CORRECT. Other > posts by Dr. Pettennude indicate to me that he is willing to consider > the *possibility* of outside contacts but like most scientists he would > like to see such possibilities backed up by verifiable, objective data. > > >It is not nice to suggest that the Indians would need outside > >consultants to create the high cultures of MesoAmerica (I guess as > >compared to the low cultures the rest of them muddled along with, the poor > >dears). > > Are you aware of the fact that there are legends from North American "low > cultures" (whatever the hell that means) of strange contacts as well. So > how come these "consultants" were only able to bring "high cultures" to > the people of Mesoamerica, and portions of South America? > > >I know when an academician wants advice on a matter he turns to other > >academicans. After all who else could be an "Expert" on the matter. In > >this case maybe all these whiz-kids should do something real radical like > >ask the Indians themselves what they think about the whole mess and > >whether their dignity needs protection from a bunch of white guys running > >around in long dresses and funny hats(that is academic robes to all you > >plebes). I have asked such questions and the answers have been most > >surprising. > > What the hell do you think we do while we're working out in the middle > of frigging nowhere? We discuss things with the local populace. Most > archaeologists are very interested in the views and opinions of people > from other cultures (we are after all trying to understand the lifeways > of people from very different cultures than our own). Why don't you > take some time to contact some archaeologists, I think you'll find that > they are a very mixed lot with a wide range of opinions on virtually > any topic. One of the few topics where there is widespread (although > not unanimous) agreement is that there is no good evidence of extensive > Old/New World contacts prior to the 16th century. > > >I was privilaged to attend of gathering of Indian elders last year where > >the whole topic of Diffusionism was under discussion. The Indians in > >attendence just about covered all the types there could be. There were > >folks with Ph.D.'s in history and anthropology (doesn't that make them > >some sort of "Expert" in whose presense us mere mortals are to quake in > >our boots-- I guess all experts are not created equal), traditional tribal > >religious leaders, and some of the scarier names in AIM. None of them had > >any problems with the idea that non-Indians got here long before Columbus > >and had profound influence upon their ancestors. > > > >They don't have a problem because their own tribal lore contains many > >tales of these early visitors. They know that somewhere under all the > >moralizing and entertainment frills of oral traditions, there are some > >gems of historical fact. They seemed to appreciate the fact that some > >folks were starting to get at the same historical events from another > >angle and providing new perspectives to the matter. > > > >So maybe the academics need to refer to "Experts" before making any sort > >of comments themselves. > >Bart Torbert > >bartjean@privatei.com > > If they can show verifiable, objective evidence of Precolumbian contacts > then archaeologists will be willing to accept the idea that such contacts > occurred. Why do you think there is now unanimous agreement that there > was a brief contact between Vikings and Indigenous groups in Newfoundland? > What archaeologists need, however, are solid artifacts - not legends which > can be interpreted in many ways and often contain elements that have no > basis in fact. > > Instead of just slagging insults and innuendo, perhaps you would care to > enlighten us as to some of the evidence which documents such contacts. > > Peter van Rossum > PMV100@PSU.EDU > >
On Fri, 15 Nov 1996, at 10:41:55, Eliyehowah cajoled electrons into this >Your dinosaurs versus my dinosaurs. Choice of weapons......Dinosaurs at dawn! >NO. ABSOLUTELY NOT. THIS IS NOT YOUR CASE OR THIS MEETING HAS CLOSED. Fingers are crossed... >THIS CONVENTION IS CLOSED if Toes are crossed... >Not only have I seen my mother's Watchtower, That explains much. >PUBLIC NOTICE: this convention is now closed. Loud cheers can be heard!!!! The sun comes out. Birds are singing. God is in his heaven and all is well with the world! :))) >[1938 AM] That's right folks, don't touch that dial!!! This is Pyramid Radio broadcasting to you on 1938 kHz. Here is the weather report: A warm front is moving in from the West. There will be severe flooding which will wipe out all life on Earth. Better blow up your inflatable chests guys and round up those animals. Don't forget to take along a few trees for the dogs! See you in the post-box period! >One buries crap, they dont shove it in their ears. A lesson which you seem to have ignored. >Okay, seems you caught my point...convention still open. Loud sighs can be heard. The sun retreats behind the clouds. Birds fall silent. Darkness descends and yet another inconsequential, unsubstantiated tirade will surely follow! :(((((((((((((( >The chronology is Watchtower chronology. Our first parent Adam was >created in 4025 BC and lived 930 years (flood came in 2370 BC as 1656 years). Did you hear that guys??? You're all wrong!! You've all been wrong all these years!! This chap has the truth!! He alone knows the TRUE history of the Earth. When asked what he put his longevity down to, Adam replied, "Clean livin' sonny, a good woman and that fruit diet!" >So Xina, you are absolutely >valueless if some scholar would send you into the world to gather data. Yeah, a contention is only valid if you accept it without seeking evidence to substantiate it. This logic also explains much. >And as Paul says my weapon is my tongue, Stand down the paramedics! Close the field hospital. No casualties expected! MarcReturn to Top
After scanning the latest BAR, a few questions that have always intrigued me popped up 1) How many graves have been found? The article mentions thousands, in at least two graveyards, but how many have been excavated? 2) Is there a possibility that perhaps some of the graves are symbolic (spiritual death, or death of an initiate's former life)? ( A long shot I know...) 3) Is there a possibility that if the Essenes were in fact also "healers" that the large number of graves were in fact the failures to do so? Could Qumron have been both a spiritual and physical hospital? 4) Just how many graves are of women and children? From what I've read, the percentage of woman and children to total graves hardly recommends itself to the theory of non-celibacy. I would think even a hundred women and children among a thousand men would prove that women and children at Qumron were an exception, not the rule. And, mathmatical extrapolation aside, how can one be sure, without opening all the graves, what gender or the age is in what grave? Would the women be buried seperately? 5) There were thousands, if not hundreds of thousands of people crucified in Palestine. The latest I've read (Charlesworth) mentions once again that only one skeleton has been found with crucifixion wounds. Why? Is it because the very means of this type of death meant that the bones were scattered by scavengers? I've read that the victims of some mass crucifixions at least were buried in common graves. Why have none been found? 6) A bit off topic, but can anyone recommend a source for the relationship between the Book of Revelation and the Roman conquest of Jerusalem and emperor worship.Return to Top