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who can poof that x^y+y^x>=1 with x,y>=0? it's seem to be easy,but not..Return to Top
RodReturn to Topwrites: > > ... My original question was ment to ask how would one take the derivative > with respect to x of the *function* 2x^(sqrt of 5). I realize that the > power rule applies, but I thaught that the sqrt of 5 was to be > differentiated without reducing it to decimal form. I suppose that this > can't be done based on the majority of the responses I recieved. It would appear that in the power differentiation formula c c-1 (x )' = c x if c is a constant you are mistakenly assuming that "constant" means "real number in decimal representation". In fact, whenever one speaks of a constant with respect to a derivation such as ( )' = derivative wrt x, it simply means any expression whose derivative is 0. That this is the appropriate condition for the above formula to hold can be seen by examining the general formula for differentiation of an arbitrary exponential, say h = f^g, where f and g may depend upon x g g log(f) g g log(f) (f )' = (e )' since f = e g log(f) u u = e (g f'/f + g' log(f)) since (e )' = e u' g-1 g = g f f' + g' f log(f) Note that in the special case g' = 0 the second term vanishes and with f = x the formula thus simplifies to the usual power differentiation rule g g-1 (x )' = g x if g' = 0 So in this context the meaning of "g is a constant" is simply that "g' = 0". It matters not what particular constant is the value of g, or how it is represented or denoted -- whether an integer, rational number, algebraic number such as sqrt(5), or transcendental number such as pi, or even some symbolic constant parameter c with unspecified value. All that matters is that g is a constant with respect to the variable of differentiation -- i.e. the value of g remains constant however x varies. In fact, when one studies differentiation from an algebraic point of view -- so called "differential algebra" -- constants are defined to be simply those elements whose derivative vanishes. In this abstract setting one is working over a ring or field whose elements are abstract objects, not necessarily functions, and a derivation is simply a linear map satisfying the product rule D(a*b) = a*D(b) + D(a)*b. For example consider the field of univariate rational expressions consisting of quotients of polynomials P(x)/Q(x) with integer coefficients, where such expressions are considered as abstract objects, independent of any possible interpreation as functions (e.g. as they might be represented in a computer algebra system such as Macsyma, Maple or Mathematica). For further info see the beautiful little book by Kaplansky titled Differential Algebra. This is the field of study underlying the algorithms employed in computer algebra systems for closed form symbolic integration in finite terms (for which see e.g. the textbook "Algorithms for Computer Algebra" by Geddes et. al.). -Bill Dubuque
"LSC"Return to Topwrote: >Hi, I am trying to prove that every natural number n can be expressed as >the sums of several term from the Fibbonacci series u1=1, u2=2, >u(n+2)=u(n+1)+u(n) (hope the spelling is correct, I forget the real >spelling). You can't prove it, because it isn't true. Not if you want the number of terms to be bounded. i.e. to represent every N as the sum of at most K Fibonacci numbers for some fixed K.
guest2@thphys.irb.hr (General Guest User) wrote: > >does anybody know why mathematicians always use >m for the slope of a straight line, for example >y=mx + b >is the usual slope-intercept form of a straight line. >Thanks Why do they use Pi for Pi? Why do they use e for e? Why do they use 1 for 1? Why does it matter?Return to Top
In article <5a8pt2$9t8@news4.digex.net>, Michael CohenReturn to Topwrites [snip] >In survey sampling statistics, weighted averages are common: >Xbar=Sum (w_i X_i) / Sum w_i. > >I suppose these could be called weighted means too but that usage is not ^^^^^^^^^^^^^^ >as usual. > I have seen "weighted mean" used frequently -- Gary Hampson
Chris (cpy_DeleteMe@world.std.com) wrote: : I have a few large data sets (daily stock prices) and a reliable : source against which to check the accuracy of the data (the : newspaper). : : Is it possible to sample the data in such a way that I can say with X : degree of certainty that the data is Y% accurate. : : Is there some non-arbitrary way to determine an appropriate sample : size? Is it better to sample a block of consecutive elements or to : spread the sample evenly across the set? : : This may be too complicated to answer in a post, but I'd appreciate : any comments that could point me in the right direction, i.e., a : relevant theorem, the relevant branch of statistics--something to : search on. Many thanks. : : --Chris : You have to have a probability model for the situation before you can decide what you want to do. The simplest interpretation of what you wrote is that each individual stock price is either right or wrong, and you want to estimate in some way the proportion of data values (prices) which are correct. On the other hand, it is possible for things like prices to be nearly correct. I can't imagine a process which would generate a few hundred prices in independent ways (that is, the prices in the newspaper are produced in one way, and your data is produced independently) and would not generally produce results which are close to each other if not exact. For example, if you gathered prices for your data at 2:00 pm and the newspaper quotes the closing price, the differences would not be large in the vast majority of cases. Anyway, if what you have is just a right-wrong decision on each price, all you are asking to do is to estimate the proportion of items in a population posessing a given characteristic (that of being correct). You do this by taking a RANDOM sample of the population (your data), determine the fraction correct in the sample, and use this as an estimate for the fraction correct in the whole population. The reliability of this estimate will depend on your sample size in a standard way. Complications arise if your sample is "large" in relation to the size of the population. If you have 500 stock prices to sample from, and you decide to take a sample of size 200, you have a different statistical problem than if you took a sample of size 20. You can learn about this in any elementary statistics book. The chapter will say something like "Estimating proportions" or "Confidence intervals for a proportion". The statistical thing you want is a confidence interval; you get to say "The proportion of correct prices in the population is between .78 and .86, and I am 95% confident that this is a true statement." The actual methods you use will depend on how you choose your sample, how big the sample is, and also on how large the proportion of correct prices is. Probability tools include using the binomial distribution (relatively small samples), the normal distribution (larger samples, proportion of correct prices not too large or too small), and the Poisson distribution. If you could get this data into electronic form it would be much more sensible just to determine the exact number of correct values. If all you have is a piece of paper with a list of numbers on it, even the process of making a random sample is going to be difficult and tedious, unless it is quite small. But it depends on what you are trying to do. If I had a list of 1000 values and I wanted to know about how good it was, I would tape it into a circle, put it on the floor, and spin the bottle 20 times inside the circle, check the 20 selected values, and use the binomial distribution. If I didn't find any wrong values, the probability that more than .01 of the values are bad is less than 5%, so I would say "At least .99 of the values are ok and I am 95% sure I am right". Hope this helps. I might be able to say something more useful if I know what you are actually trying to do and why.Return to Top
Hello I'm taking an advanced calc class and cannot seem to get an angle on the following question: Must all bounded non empty sets have a non empty boundary? The problem I'm having is with the boundary part. How is a boundary defined for an arbitrary set? Obviously, a closed set has a boundary (the inverse of the set is open), but what conclusions can I draw from a bounded, non empty set? Thanks! Joel O. jjo31420@aol.comReturn to Top
sfly wrote: > > who can poof that x^y+y^x>=1 with x,y>=0? > it's seem to be easy,but not.. Let A = x^y + y^x If y=0 then A = x^0 + 0^x = 1 + 0 = 1 for any x If x=0 then A = 0^y + y^0 = 0 + 1 = 1 for any y If x>0 and y>0 then A>1 This covers all possibilities. Bill W0IYHReturn to Top
William E. Sabin wrote: > > sfly wrote: > > > > who can poof that x^y+y^x>=1 with x,y>=0? > > it's seem to be easy,but not.. > > Let A = x^y + y^x > > If y=0 then A = x^0 + 0^x = 1 + 0 = 1 for any x > > If x=0 then A = 0^y + y^0 = 0 + 1 = 1 for any y > > If x>0 and y>0 then A>1 > > This covers all possibilities. I take it all back. Not good enough! Bill W0IYHReturn to Top
In a message dated 31 Dec 1996 06:43:43 GMT, you write: > > > Subject: Re: Game Show > From: classicm2@aol.com (ClassicM2) > Date: 31 Dec 1996 06:43:43 GMT > Message-ID: <19961231064200.BAA03349@ladder01.news.aol.com> > > Could the Monte Hall problem be a FAQ somewhere? (with an answer?) > > Melanie :) I believe it shows up in the FAQ for rec.puzzlesReturn to Top
Nablus An-najah Natonal University The department of Mathematics at An-Najah National University in Nablus - PALESTINE invites applications for faculty positions in th fields of (1) Partial Differential Equations (2) Numerical Analysis starting october 1,1997. Yhe completed doctorate is required and/or research experience required. The department offers both Bachelor's and Master's degree. Candidateswill be expected to engage in research,teach both graduate and undergraduate levels, snd to be qualified to supervise student research and thesis writing. Applicants should send a letter of application,transcripts, a cirriculum vitae and three letters of reference to be sent before June 1, 1997 Department of Mathematics An-Najah National University Nablus Palestine. Email: alamleh@najah.eduReturn to Top
In article <5a8fb7$jm0@metro.ucc.su.OZ.AU>, PeterReturn to Topwrote: >Hi, everybody. >Could anyone give me the answer of my subject? One of the real problems with giving you an answer is that the foundations are only studied by those who are already using mathematics. The entire pedagogical sequence is from the non-basic to the more basic. To some extent, this must be so. If you really want to start with the basics, start with a book on mathematical logic. -- This address is for information only. I do not claim that these views are those of the Statistics Department or of Purdue University. Herman Rubin, Dept. of Statistics, Purdue Univ., West Lafayette IN47907-1399 hrubin@stat.purdue.edu Phone: (317)494-6054 FAX: (317)494-0558
In article <5a94rp$cvr5@chinook.generation.net>, Gilles LehouxReturn to Topwrote: >I must program to evaluate the hypergeometric probability >distribution, >I have obtained from NETLIB and other sources some relevant source >code examples. These examples are for the "U-confluent Hypergeometric" >or the "Confluent Hypergeometric". >What is the meaning of this "confluent" qualifier? >Are "Hypergeometric" and "Confluent Hypergeometric" equivalent >functions? >How can I go from the "Hypergeometric" input variables to the >"Confluent Hypergeometric" input variables? >Note: >The confluent hypergeometric function is the solution to the >differential equation: zf"(z) + (a-z)f'(z) - >bf(z) = 0 >The Hypergeometric function is: > n m >C * C > k r-k >------------- = Hypergeometric(n,m,k) > n+m >C > r This is not the hypergeometric function, but the hypergeometric distribution. It received this name because its probability generating function is P(0)F(-n, -r; m-r+1; x), where F is the hypergeometric function as generally used in mathematics. The general hypergeometric function F(a,b; c; x) gives rise to a distribution if the terms are all non-negative and F(a,b; c; 1) is finite. For the confluent hypergeometric function, the series always converges. Many distributions are named in this way, or for the use of their probabilities or densities in connection with useful functions. This includes the binomial, negative binomial, logarithmic series, and Zeta distribuions for the integer case, and the exponential, uniform, Beta, and Gamma distributions in the continuous case. -- This address is for information only. I do not claim that these views are those of the Statistics Department or of Purdue University. Herman Rubin, Dept. of Statistics, Purdue Univ., West Lafayette IN47907-1399 hrubin@stat.purdue.edu Phone: (317)494-6054 FAX: (317)494-0558
sfly wrote: > > who can poof that x^y+y^x>=1 with x,y>=0? > it's seem to be easy,but not.. Let A = x^y + y^x If y=0 then A = x^0 + 0^x = x^0 + 0 limit, as x approaches 0+, of x^0 = 1 If x=0 then A = 0^y + y^0 = 0 + y^0 limit, as y approaches 0+, of y^0 = 1 If x=0+ and y=0+ then A > 1 This covers all possibilities for real x, y if they are not both exactly zero. If x any are both exactly zero then the hypothesis is not correct. Bill W0IYHReturn to Top
In article <01bbf5fd$34038ec0$8a40aace@default>, "Robert E Sawyer"Return to Topwrites: > >In the orthogonal LS case (OLS), the full minimization involves finding the >center of the best fitting circle, as well as its radius, but I think it's >clear that the center must turn out to be the point (xbar,ybar), i.e. the >"center of mass" of the data points. Therefore, transform the data from >(x_i,y_i) to (X_i,Y_i) with X_i=x_i-xbar, Y_i=y_i-ybar, so these (X_i,Y_i) >are centered on (0,0) and only the radius needs to be found. > No. Think of the special case of the three data points (1,0), (-1,0), and (0,1). The circle which minimizes the OLS case is then clearly the unit circle centered at the origin, yet your center of mass argument would center the circle around (0, 0.5), resulting in a worse fit. However, your argument about which radius to use, given a certain center, I find sound; that is: >radius is the mean radius Rbar of the "centered data" coordinates. So, given that the optimal radius is just the average of the distances to each point from the center, one should then be able to derive a formula (or at least an approximation algorithm) for the location of the center itself. I have an idea how an approximation algortihm might work, but I'm not certain yet whether or not my idea generates an algorithm that always converges, so I'll hold off on posting it. Deriving a formula seems possible, though the algebra seems to get a little messy for my taste. <_|_> DANIEL
>rbrito@ime.usp.br (Rogerio Brito) wrote: > > Hi. > > Once I saw a quotation with credits due to Hardy that > said something like: "There's no place to ugly > Mathematics." > > So, I ask you professional mathematicians, what do you > consider a beatiful proof to a theorem? What are your > parameters? Can you describe? > Can someone give us the direct quote from Hardy - I believe it to be more like: "There is no permanent place in Mathematics for ugly proofs." I interpret this as allowing for ugly first proofs.Return to Top
sfly wrote: > > who can poof that x^y+y^x>=1 with x,y>=0? > it's seem to be easy,but not.. Why, for at least one of x, y >1 the theorem is obviuos. When both x,y<1 we have A = x^y + y^x = (1/p)^(1/q) + (1/q)^(1/p), where p = 1/x, q=1/y. Then A^(pq) > 1/p + 1/q > 1., Q.E.D.Return to Top
"William E. Sabin"Return to Topwrote: >sfly wrote: >> >> who can poof that x^y+y^x>=1 with x,y>=0? >> it's seem to be easy,but not.. >Let A = x^y + y^x >If y=0 then A = x^0 + 0^x = x^0 + 0 >limit, as x approaches 0+, of x^0 = 1 >If x=0 then A = 0^y + y^0 = 0 + y^0 >limit, as y approaches 0+, of y^0 = 1 >If x=0+ and y=0+ then A > 1 ~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~ ????why? please proof it! >This covers all possibilities for real x, y if they are not both >exactly zero. If x any are both exactly zero then the hypothesis is not >correct. >Bill W0IYH
ClassicM2 wrote: > > Could the Monte Hall problem be a FAQ somewhere? (with an answer?) > > Melanie :) http://sdg.ncsa.uiuc.edu/~mag/rec.puzzles/Puzzles/monty.hall.s.html -- D. mentock@mindspring.com http://www.mindspring.com/~mentock/index.htmReturn to Top
I take it all back, too. Happy New Year! Beer was so good!Return to Top
sfly wrote: > > ????why? > please proof (prove)it! The proof is by logical deduction, which is a perfectly valid and accepted method in mathematics. BillReturn to Top
rbrito@ime.usp.br (Rogerio Brito) wrote: > Hi. > > Once I saw a quotation with credits due to Hardy that > said something like: "There's no place to ugly > Mathematics." And I agree. As E.W. Dijkstra once put it: "Beauty is our business." > So, I ask you professional mathematicians, what do you > consider a beatiful proof to a theorem? What are your > parameters? Can you describe? Not really. But I'll try. One book you might like to read is A.J.M. van Gasteren, "On the Shape of Mathematical Arguments", Springer 1990, Lecture Notes in Computer Science 445. This book is on the design and presentation of proofs. It consists of a series of case studies, where often clear and concise proofs are given as alternatives for wieldy and/or vague proofs from the literature. The second half tries to distill some general principles from these case studies. As an example, in Chapter 5 she presents two proofs for the theorem that "[a] natural number is a multiple of 3 iff the sum of the digits in its decimal representation is a multiple of 3." The proof given by Arbib, Kfoury, and Moll in "A Basis for Theoretical Computer Science" -- they consider it exemplary -- is quite complicated, making many case distinctions. Conversely, here is Van Gasteren's proof, which in fact proves r(n) = n + multiple of 9; r(n) is the sum of the digits of n in its decimal representation. "We adopt the decimal positional system, dropping, however the constraint that each digit be less than 10. We start with the decimal number having n as its only significant ``digit'' --and, hence, having digit sum n--, and by repeated carries transform it into n's standard decimal representation --which has digit sum r(n)--. A carry consists in subtracting 10 from a digit >= 10 and adding, or creating, 1 at the position to the immediate left. Each carry, hence, changes the digit sum by -9. This process terminates because the digit sum is at least 0 and decreases at each carry. Hence r(n) = n + multiple of 9." This, IMHO, is an example of an elegant proof. Why? For one thing, because it is so much simpler than the original proof. It is about the simplest proof possible. I agree with Van Gasteren that the following things are among those that make a proof more elegant: * It is presented in a readable way, so that the reader can easily understand and check it. * It treats separate points separately. * Neither too much nor too little terms (names, abbreviations, labels) are used. To be fair, Van Gasteren's book is not about beauty or elegance, but about the design and presentation of proofs. It is my experience, however, that following her advice results in more elegant proofs. On several occasions it allowed me to rewrite proofs from literature in a much more readable way. A good side effect of spending time on proof presentation is that it becomes more obvious what the crucial points in a proof are. I find that highlighting such points is another thing that makes a proof better. > Sometimes I think a proof is amazing and the author of > the text I'm reading says that "there are much nicer > proofs to this theorem" and sometimes the author says: > "See how this is beautiful" to something that seems > trivial to me. But why do you consider a proof amazing? Because one of its steps surprises you? Or because you say to yourself "this must be the simplest proof possible for this theorem"? Or because the theorem proved is beautiful? Or something else altogether? Personally, I think I don't like a proof if it is more complex than necessary. Also, generally I prefer a proof which relies on formula manipulation as opposed to one described using mostly text. For example, proving that (Ex:: (Ay:: P)) => (Ay:: (Ex:: P)) can be done as follows: (Ex:: (Ay:: P)) == "(Ex:: (Ay:: P)) does not contain y free" (Ay:: (Ex:: (Ay:: P))) => "(Ay:: P) => P" (Ay:: (Ex:: P)) (Here (E_:: _) and (A_:: _) stand for existential and universal quantification, respectively, == is equivalence, and => is implication. The text within "..." are hints.) A mostly-text proof of this theorem is long-winded and incomprehensible, in my experience. Note how in a certain sense the above proof is trivial. Still I consider it elegant due to its simplicity. This formal style of proof is the basis of David Gries and Fred B. Schneider, "A Logical Approach to Discrete Math", Springer 1993. There is information on this on the web too, at http://www.cs.cornell.edu/Info/People/gries/Logic/Introduction.html Two other titles: E.W. Dijkstra and C.S. Scholten, "Predicate Calculus and Program Semantics", Springer 1990; and (I think) "Beauty is our business -- a birthday tribute to Edsger W. Dijkstra". > So, since different people have different tastes, how do > you agree that a proof is elegant? I don't know. All I know is that often we just agree, at least about the beauty of the basic structure of a proof. There may very well be disagreement on its presentation. But that is just my limited experience. > Just curious, Roger... And I'm curious, too. Is there more literature on this, perhaps? Groetjes, <>< Marnix -- Marnix Klooster | If you reply to this post, marnix@worldonline.nl | please send me an e-mail copy.Return to Top
William Long wrote: > > David Kaufman (davk@netcom.com) wrote: > : A numbered word is usually a number next to the left of > : a word (or abbreviation). The number tells how many, while > : the word reveals what items are under consideration. For > : example, "5 pounds" (5 lb) or "4 fruit" are numbered words. > -- > Ah, a definition of "numbered word." Thanks. But, the sentence > "A numbered word is usually a number ..." seems to me to say that the > numbered word is the NUMBER. Then the examples seem to say that the > numbered word consists of BOTH the number and the word. Shouldn't a > numbered word be a special kind of WORD? (Sorry to be so picky, but I > really feel the need for a clear precise definition.) > > William Long > a018379t@bcfreenet.seflin.lib.fl.us I came in on this thread just today and so I don't have the background posts other than this one. I'm not sure that I understand, but... I like the phrase, "numbered word" because it emphasizes the word and reduces the number to the status of adjective. My chemistry students often will solve problems without units and are indignant when I do not give them credit for "correct answers" even though they only get the adjectives right and not the "nouns." An understanding of the process of handling units, dimensional analysis, is so important to mathematical reasoning and a respect for process so important to scienctific studies that I have now adopted the phrase, "numbered word" as an intimate part of my science-teaching vocabulary. Have I got it right or am I missing the point? Thanks. BobReturn to Top
William E. Sabin wrote: > > sfly wrote: > > > > > ????why? > > please proof (prove)it! > > The proof is by logical deduction, which is a perfectly valid and > accepted method in mathematics. > > Bill Actually, you merely asserted what was to be proved. That only works half the time. g -- D. mentock@mindspring.com http://www.mindspring.com/~mentock/index.htmReturn to Top
Hi all I have brain lock right now this should be an easy problem to solve (I think) (d^2 X) A ------- = --- d t^2 X this is the form for the equation of motion of a particle in a logarithmic potential. hopefull some body will go....MORON...it is obviously this If you can help thanks for the neurons Wayne ShanksReturn to Top
So this is what passes for theory among educators? New terminology wrapped around old concepts? What a waste of time.Return to Top
Simon Read (nfic@internetmci.com) wrote: : jasonp@Glue.umd.edu (Jason Stratos Papadopoulos) wrote: : >' : >' 1 1 1 1 1 2 3 4 5 : >' 1 - - + - - - * - (1 + - (1 + -- (1 + --(1 + --(1 + --))))) : >' 3 5 2 7 9 11 13 15 17 : >' : >'Gregory's terms take less time to compute than Euler's, and overall : >'the error drops by a factor of 3 per term instead of 2 per term. : Starting with 1/9 we have the ratios of successive terms as n/(2n+7) : which (for n=1, 2, 3, 4, 5, ...) gives us : 1/9, 2/11, 3/13, 4/15, 5/17, .... as you quote above. : The +7 eventually becomes less noticeable and each term approaches the : limit of 1/2 x (previous term) : which means the error after each term is half what it : would have been without that term. : I am unclear when you say : "the overall error drops by a factor of 3 per term" : if you mean the series you quote or some other series. That's the strange part! The standard Euler acceleration starts with a sequence of partial sums S0 S1 S2 S3 ... and forms more columns; each entry is the average of the entry to its left and the entry above and to the left: S00 \ S01 - S10 \ \ S02 - S11 - S20 \ \ \ S03 - S12 - S21 - S30 The standard Euler series for pi/4 is just the sequence of diagonal elements. What's strange (and what the program takes advantage of) is that if you look at the error from pi/4 along a given row, the minimum error occurs 2/3 of the way out and NOT all the way out. This corresponds to adding up a few terms of the original series (going straight down the first column) and then accelerating (forming a smaller triangle whose diagonal is the sequence of approximations actually used) Not only are the errors smaller 2/3 of the way out on any row, but they decrease much faster than those of the diagonals...in effect by a factor of 3 per term instead of 2 per term! The reason has to do, I think, with linear programming (I'm not at all sure why, it seems like magic) but check the code for yourself: the number of terms the program adds together should not be enough to calculate pi to all the decimal places shown, but by some tiny miracle it works and is the major time-saver in the code. For more rigor and some references see "The Lag-Averaged Euler Method" (or something close), Applied Mathematics and Computation vol 72 #2, Sept 1995 jasonpReturn to Top
In article <851972914.785@dejanews.com>,Return to Topwrote: >In article <5a72m9$lmn@cymbal.aix.calpoly.edu>, > jplee@cymbal.aix.calpoly.edu (Jason Lee) wrote: >> >> And then abian@iastate.edu (Alexander Abian) quote: >> > >> > DEFINITION (Abian). A real number is a picture with a decimal point and >> > with finitely many digits to the left of the decimal point and with >> >infinitely many digits to the right of the decimal point (and the >> >picture is preceded with + or minus sign ( + is usually omitted). >> >> >> JLee > > > Actually it's a perfectly reasonable definition of "real number". >A tad ambiguous, (and it needs a little addendum to handle the case where >one real number has two decimal expansions) >.............. >David Ullrich Abian answers: No, there is no ambiguity, because (please see my previous posting) After proving the fundamental Theorem of Completeness, I introduce subtraction, and I define a = b iff a - b = 0 in which case clearly, say, 3.4699999999..... = 3.4700000... and 0.99999..... = 1.0000000.... The entire power of the above Definition is that it shows how to pass from kindergarten arithmetic of "finite pictures" such as 3.65, 787.9876, etc to the PH.D arithmetic of "infinite pictures". The transition from kindergarten "Finite arithmetic" to PH.D "Infinite arithmetic" is performed via considering the SET of TRUNCATIONS (of addition, multiplication,....etc) and assigning the LUB or GLB of those sets (with proper precautions to handle negative numbers, etc) of truncations (as explained in my previous postings). Obviously in the above DEFINITION ..... and with infinitely many digits to the right of the decimal point... is an abbreviation of: ....a (countable infinite) sequence of ordinal type omega of digits 0 to 9 to the right of the decimal point " Alexander Abian -- -------------------------------------------------------------------------- ABIAN MASS-TIME EQUIVALENCE FORMULA m = Mo(1-exp(T/(kT-Mo))) Abian units. ALTER EARTH'S ORBIT AND TILT - STOP GLOBAL DISASTERS AND EPIDEMICS ALTER THE SOLAR SYSTEM. REORBIT VENUS INTO A NEAR EARTH-LIKE ORBIT TO CREATE A BORN AGAIN EARTH (1990)
Oh, God. It seems we have a KotM Clash of the Titans in the works. Brace yerselves! Actually, there might be good in this after all: Jiri, why don't you provide a concise debunking [it's not that hard, just a little time-consuming] of the TETET stuff, and Angel, you can debunk Jiri's "Science-Art" [again, not hard]. Good luck one and all.... CajReturn to Top
*SIGH* BLStansburyReturn to Topwrote: >> >> No, not quite. If we want to write pi down in some >>positional notation (i.e., decimal) or use it in computation, >>THEN we must approximate it. >Oh, so we do not approxiamte it at other times. I did not realize >this. Correct. We only approximate PI when doing real-world computation with it. In mathematics, we use its exact value. >> It is a lie that the best one can do is approximate. >>Mathematics is exact >I understand. Could you please send me the exact value of pi. Sure. How about 6*arcsin(1/2)? See, Mr. Stansbury, I think you are not apprehending the distinction between the VALUE of a constant and its decimal representation. Decimal representations are things we write down, and do arithmetic with. But while PI can be written as "approximately 3.14159...," that is not the value of PI, any more than the name "Mr. Stansbury" *is* Mr. Stansbury. Imagine that, one day, I decide to change my last name to an infinitely long string, whose letters form no recognizable pattern. You then have me, Scott Craverthreepointonefouronefive... and the actual name "Scott Craverthreepointonefouronefive...." You'll never write my name down completely [lots of fun at graduation!] but that's just a name. If you respond to "I bumped into Scott Craverpi the other day" with, "NO YOU DIDN'T!! YOU JUST BUMPED INTO AN APPROXIMATION OF Scott Craverpi!!", then you are probably not clear on the use-mention distinction, between the name of something and its value. This is what you seem to be displaying here. We will never be able to do base-10 arithmetic with the exact value of PI, because we would have to write PI in base-10, which would require an infinite number of digits. But mathematics IS NOT COMPUTATION. We use the exact value of PI in mathematics. We just don't restrict ourselves to writing answers entirely in decimal, get it? A circle of radius 2 has area 4pi, exactly. >1/3 * 300 = 100 and 100/pi * pi = 100 >1/pi * 3.14159265359... does not = 1 I assume that by "3.14159265359..." you mean only a finite number of digits, yes? Sure, then. But what does that show? 1/(1/3) * 0.33333333333 does not = 1 either. Again, just because we can't write it in base-10 doesn't mean we can't use its exact value. Similarly, just because we can't draw a perfect circle doesn't mean we can't use perfect circles in mathematics. >> Um, no. What we can do in mathematics does not depend >>on how many digits of PI a machine can crank out, or how sharp a >>pencil we can build. >? Do you want me to elaborate on this? >> The squaring a circle is impossible even >>with perfectly accurate tools [meaning, of course, an unmarked >>straightedge and compass]. >Or by any other means. Not true. Squaring the circle *is* possible if we slightly modify those perfectly accurate tools. With an umarked straightedge and collapsing compass, it cannot be done. >BLS ,oooooooo8 o ooooo@math.niu.edu -- http://www.math.niu.edu/~caj/ o888' `88 ,888. 888 888 ,8'`88. 888 "This year's Summer fasions are simple yet 888o. ,oo ,8oooo88. 888 vibrant, as I will prove using the following `888oooo88 o88o o888o 888 lemma." -Cindy Crawford, _Gauss_of_Style_ ____________________8o888'_________________________________________________
In article <5a796k$4i6@dartvax.dartmouth.edu>, Archimedes.Plutonium@dartmouth.edu (Archimedes Plutonium) wrote: > > In article <32C55DC7.6948@math.okstate.edu> > David UllrichReturn to Topwrites: > > > I'm a little puzzled that you would ask the question when you > > must already know the answer. Surely all your comments about Wiles' > > fakery indicate that you've at least read the proof? > [fascinating comments on number theory snipped] But your fascinating comments don't answer my question. Question: Have you read Wiles' proof of FLT or not? The answer would be "yes" or "no", _this_ question has nothing to do with whether Naturals = Adics. (You understand my confusion: All this time I've been assuming you were familiar with the proof, otherwise how could you comment on it the way you do? But now you're asking us whether Wiles' proof assumes RH - I would have thought _you_ would tell _us_ whether Wiles' assumed RH in the proof, since you're the expert.) David C. Ullrich -------------------==== Posted via Deja News ====----------------------- http://www.dejanews.com/ Search, Read, Post to Usenet
Michael Cohen has correctly shown that lim (x->0+) x^x = 0. However, the following must be noted (for it is the reason that 0^0 is undefined generally). Let f(x,y)= y^x. Then f(x,x) = x^x and we have already shown that as x=>0+, we arrive at 1 for the value of 0^0. This is equivalent to approaching the origin along the line y=x. However, approaching along the line y=0, we have f(x,0)= 0^x = 0 for all x. Thus, lim (x->0) 0 = 0. Therefore, the value of 0^0 is undefined generally. FrankReturn to Top
Can someone could explain me clearly why ABC conjecture should be true? Hugo ChapdelaineReturn to Top
sfly (b841039@math.ntu.edu.tw) wrote: > how to solve the eq.......x^4-d*y^2=1 where d=41*73 > and , is ther there rational numbers a,b,c such that > a^2-b^2=b^2-c^2=d (d=41*73) There are no nontrivial solutions in either case, although this conclusion is harder to come by than is typical in these questions. Hauke ReddmannReturn to Topwrote: >Elliptic Curves (move x=1,y=0 to infinity) >a+b=d/l >a-b=l >b+c=d/m >b-c=m >d/l-l=d/m+m >Which is again an elliptic curve after a bit >variable rewriting. This is the way to go. Let's look at the second system of equations first. As Hauke noted, the equations may be rewritten d/l-l=d/m+m ; upon multiplying by l*m we obtain a cubic equation which may be expressed as an elliptic curve in standard form. Indeed, using the invertible transformation {l=d*(X-d)/Y, m=X*(X-d)/Y} the equation becomes 2 Y = X (X - d) (X + d) This equation clearly has solutions with Y=0 (namely X=0, X= +- d, and the "point at infinity"). But these don't correspond to solutions (l,m) of Hauke's pair of equations, nor to solutions (a,b,c) of the original pair. Now, the points on an elliptic curve form a finitely-generated abelian group; these four points are merely the torsion subgroup. What's really interesting is the question of whether this group has positive rank. There are a number of algorithms which enable us to estimate the rank of a general elliptic curve over the rational field, but these don't give sufficiently strong upper bounds for our particular curve. However, curves of the form described above are precisely those involved in Tunnell's resolution (sort of) of the "congruent number problem". Tunnell proves that there is a more-or-less complete algorithm which can tell us at least whether the rank of the curve is positive or not. Here's the test (for d square-free). Count the number of integer solutions (x,y,z) to the equation 2x^2 + y^2 + 8z^2 = d. Let c1 be the number of such solutions. Let c2 be the number of such solutions with z even. Then if the elliptic curve y^2=x(x^2-d^2) has positive rank, we must have c1 = 2 c2. (The converse is probably true,too). Unless I miscounted, there are for d=43*71 exactly c1=96 solutions but only c2=40 with z even, so by Tunnell's theorem, the rank of this elliptic curve is zero. The only points are the torsion points, and so there are no solutions to the original equations. Now we can address sfly's other equation. Again, Hauke's suggestion is fine: using the invertible transformation {y=4*Y/(X-2*d)^2, x=(X+2*d)/(X-2*d)} the equation becomes 2 2 2 Y = X (X + (2 d) ) While this curve is not of the type covered directly by Tunnell's theorem, it happens to be isogenous to the first curve we considered. (That is, there are homomorphisms E -> E' and E' -> E whose composites are the doubling maps on each curve). In particular, these two elliptic curves have the same rank, which we have shown to be zero. Thus again the only points on this curve are the torsion points, which can be checked to be only the point (X,Y)=(0,0) and the point at infinity (unless d=1). In terms of the original coordinates, this means the only rational solutions are (x,y) = (+-1, 0). Of course, if you start with a different value of d, then the situation can be quite different. I'm glad you didn't suggest d=157. dave
On Tue, 31 Dec 1996 04:38:43 GMT, juanvp@impsat1.com.ar (JuanVP) wrote: If I ask 100 of my students to give me the area of a pi x pi square, and each one of them gives me a right but different answer, which value(s) should I accept? All of them right? And none of their answers would be exactly the same. BLSReturn to Top
On Tue, 31 Dec 1996 19:43:50 GMT, bstan@datasync.com (BLStansbury) wrote: >If I ask 100 of my students to give me the area of a pi x pi square, >and each one of them gives me a right but different answer, which >value(s) should I accept? All of them right? And none of their answers >would be exactly the same. Well-defined maths problems like this have only 1 answer. You cannot have "right but different answers", if that were the case no relation containing products would be a function(!!). The only right answer is a pi^2 area, but if you consider that the answer to this problem is right if it has for instance 3 significant digits or more, then any number in the interval [9.869, 9.870] would be considered correct, but bear in mind that every number in the interval but 1 (Pi^2) is only an approximation of the answer with an error less than 10^-3. JuanReturn to Top
Richard Miao wrote: > > Let R be the reigon in the xy-plane between the graphs of y=e^x and > y=e^-x from x=0 to x=2 > Find the volume of the solid generated when R is revolved around the x > axis and y-axis > Okay, this is not a difficult problem I know, you just use disk and shell > methods. However, when rotating about the x-axis, I would like to know if > there is a hole produced. Does the e^x affect the problem? How would the > setup for this problem go? Is it: > > pi * int(0 to 2) * (e^-x)^2 or the e^x also included? Let R be the region in xy-plane ->BETWEEN<- the graphs y=e^x and y=e^-x from x=0 to x=2 So, the e^x is included: for a rotation around the x axis: pi*int(0 to 2) * (e^2x - e^-2x) for a rotation around the y axis: pi*int{e^-2 to e^2}(ln(x))^2 (verify :-))Return to Top
Jjo31420 (jjo31420@aol.com) wrote: [...] > Must all bounded non empty sets have a non empty boundary? In what topological space? > The problem I'm having is with the boundary part. How is a boundary > defined for an arbitrary set? Obviously, a closed set has a boundary > (the inverse of the set is open), but what conclusions can I draw > from a bounded, non empty set? There are several (equivalent) definitions of "boundary" of a subset S of a topological space (X,T). One of them says that x is in the boundary of S iff every neighborhood of x intersects both S and X\S. The answer to the original question depends on the topological space you are working with. Assuming that it is R (the real line) with its usual topology, a hint could be to look at sup S, which must exist since S is non-empty and bounded. If you are in R^n, try to find some similar idea. However, if you are in Q (rational numbers) the answer is negative... Miguel A. LermaReturn to Top
In article <19961231142400.JAA09990@ladder01.news.aol.com>, Jjo31420Return to Topwrote: > > Hello > > I'm taking an advanced calc class and cannot seem to get an angle on >the following question: > > Must all bounded non empty sets have a non empty boundary? > > > The problem I'm having is with the boundary part. How is a boundary >defined for an arbitrary set? Obviously, a closed set has a boundary >(the inverse of the set is open), but what conclusions can I draw >from a bounded, non empty set? > > Thanks! > Joel O. > jjo31420@aol.com You are right in one respect: to answer the question, you need a definition of the boundary. (Scan the textbook - the definition should be there.) One possible definition: it is the set of boundary points, and x is a boundary point of S if every neighborhood of x contains points both from S and from the complement of S. Equivalently in metric spaces, x is a boundary point of S if there are two sequences, both convergent to x, one consisting of points from S and the other consisting of points from the complement of S. You see that the boundary depends on the surrounding space (in which the complements are taken), and boundedness depends on how we define the distance in the surrounding space. To give anyone a chance to answer the question, this information must be specified. The introductory scenario is, I presume, that the surrounding space is R, the set of all real numbers, with abs(x-y) as the distance between x and y. In that case, given a non-empty bounded S, consider b = sup S. You do need the concept of the supremum, or a concept equally powerful (to formulate the completeness of R), to answer the question. In spaces R^n with Euclidean distance, take sequences of points where the first coordinate approaches its supremum, and subsequences of those. In other spaces, the situation may be a jungle. If the surrounding space is Q (the rationals), for example, then there are non-empty bounded sets without a boundary: take the set of all rationals whose square is less than 2. It is a non-empty bounded set which is both open and closed, and has no boundary. Hope it helps, ZVK (Slavek).
Daniel T. Martin wrote: > > In article <01bbf5fd$34038ec0$8a40aace@default>, "Robert E Sawyer"Return to Topwrites: [...] > >I think it's > >clear that the center must turn out to be the point (xbar,ybar), i.e. the > >"center of mass" of the data points. [...] > > > No. Think of the special case of the three data points (1,0), (-1,0), and > (0,1). The circle which minimizes the OLS case is then clearly the unit > circle centered at the origin, yet your center of mass argument would center > the circle around (0, 0.5), resulting in a worse fit. ^^^ You mean 1/3 here, though it doesn't affect your argument. > However, your argument about which radius to use, given a certain center, I > find sound; that is: > >radius is the mean radius Rbar of the "centered data" coordinates. > Nope. Consider the three points (-1, 0), (0, 0), (1, 0). In this case we have Rbar = 2/3. If we put the center at (c, 0) and w.l.o.g. c >= 0, we find that the c which minimizes the sum of (the squares of) the orthogonal distances is c = 2/9. This gives a total orthogonal distance of 14/27. However, if we do the same calculation and minimize over both c and r (the radius), we find that the minimal orthogonal distance occurs when c = 1/4 and r = 3/4, giving a distance of 1/2, which is less than the 14/27 we found using r = Rbar. In fact, the symmetry of this instance is misleading--you can make the orthogonal distance as close to zero as you wish in this case. Put the center on the y-axis and fit a circle through (-1, 0) and (1, 0). Those two points will then contribute zero to the orthogonal distance and you can move the center (adjusting the radius appropriately) away from the origin (upwards, say), to make the lower part of the circle arbitrarily close to the remaining point (0, 0). Regards, Rick ----------------------------------------------------- Rick Decker rdecker@hamilton.edu Department of Comp. Sci. 315-859-4785 Hamilton College Clinton, NY 13323 = != == (!) -----------------------------------------------------