Did someone say black hole? To question their existence is unknown to me. I always thought that if an object became massive enough, it would collapse on its self; even to the point that it would crush the neutrons, protons and electrons within it. Kip S. Thorne asserted this, but I don't know if it was ever proved...Return to Top
Perhaps the reason electrons do not collapse into a proton of an atom is because space is a substance that cannot be penetrated/permeated by an electron at its speed in the first orbital. As if the energy of an electron will not allow it to collapse to hit a proton because space is in between the two. How does that sound?Return to Top
In article <54oji1$jk0@solaris.cc.vt.edu> ramanlab@vt.edu "ramanlab" wrote: - Messagesubject is "Re: Fullerene" Hi Frank >> Angenommen Ich habe Interesse, >> was macht man denn aus Fullerenen ? Sind schon irgendwelche Anwendungen >> entwickelt worden oder ist alles nur Theorie ? Und weshalb steht es in der >> Coatings-Newsgroup? >> >> >Fullerenes can be used to make lubricants for use in high vacuum. Sie werden auch in der Leichtbauweise angewandt. Sie ersetzen die Kohlefaser, da sie eine bessere Stabilitaet besitzen. -- end transmission | (gizmo@smello.ruhr.de) Christian | IRC : GiZM0^RED ALERT on eu.undernet.org | WWW : http://www.geocities.com/area51/5562 -- EOFReturn to Top
Einstein said GOD exists...Return to Top
Yes, you must consider two things in these collisions... Mass and velocity, M and v. The conservation of momentum is MV=MV therefore all you need is the masses and velocities and that equation to find the mass or velocities after the collision. It even works with 100 objects hitting 20 objects in 3-d space with 3-d vector(i,j,k) velocities and it even holds true with large masses and non-homogeneous(clumpy) masses. The only time this fails is with velocities in excess of 1/3 the speed of light. In other words, use Mv=Mv unless your Ms are going faster than 100,000 meters per second.Return to Top
Hypothesis: Matter can be broken down into atoms, infinitely. The + and - nature of matter repeats itself at some level. Conclusion: As we explore at the atomic level, at some point the atom repeats itself. There are no gratons, or quarks, or even any theoretical particles. The nature of matter consists of attraction and repulsion, and nothing more. Space consists of these infinite atoms, but we can't detect them at such a small level and atoms are mere collections of smaller atoms which consist of opposite charges. Any comments/questions?Return to Top
Time dilation does not occur. This is a myth. Our time system is based on space. Think about it; the atomic clock calculates how long it takes an electron to travel from one point in space to another point in that same space. This only tells us about time in our space. Relativity assumes that the speed of light is constant in all space. Therefore, if you go into some space that is compressed by gravity or some other force, light would be the same speed, but only for you. If I saw that light in your space, it is possible that the light would move slower from where I was looking and therefore, I would measure time differently for you than you would measure for yourself. This is due to the fact that you are in a different type of space than me. Just examine the perihelion(a type of circle) shift of mars. Relativity explains this shift due to the fact that light travels from the sun to us but it goes through different space which is warped by the gravity of the sun. When the sunlight is reflected from mars, it looks like it is at xyz, but it is really at some other xyz because the light that hits earth travels at a constant speed and gets here earlier than we expect because space is compressed near the sun... blah-blah-blahReturn to Top
Faster than light travel is not possible in a closed system. If you consider looking at a particle from 1000000000 miles away, it is conceivable to go faster than light, but if you look at it from 50ft away at all times, it is not possible. Look, this rule of light isn't only a rule for light, it is a property of space. If we want to understand this universe, we need to look at space with relativity in mind.Return to Top
Damn good question... Perhaps the electrons at one end of a rod are not accelerated at another end of a rod instantaneously because, as you suppose, the electrons travel at near-light speed from one end of the rod to the far end antil they reach the end. This takes time, but in the real world, the time is negligible. It's my belief that the electrons stabilize after acceleration to a normal equilibrium and eventually cancel the effects of acceleration. Inertia comes into play when you cosider the following: to stop an object which is moving, you never touch it, but the electrons in the stopping item repel the electrons in the moving object which cause the moving object to first compress and then stabilize after they stop. The force experienced by you stopping a moving object is the electric repulsion of electrons. That's quantum mechanics... Doesn't it suck?Return to Top
O Smith wrote: > > WHAT "Fresh Knowledge" CHANGED the POPE's MIND? > > If you are wondering what fresh knowledge or scientific evidence > changed the POPE's mind recently on the issue of creation/evolution > than you might want to see the site below. It has an engineering > history as well as a scientific analogy. > > Click here to take you to the page that changed the Pope's mind. > http://www.clark.net/pub/thomjeff/origins/creationgoodpicturestuff.html > > This is the home page. > http://www.clark.net/pub/thomjeff/Return to Top
charliewReturn to Topwrites >>> savainl@pacificnet.net (Louis Savain) wrote: > SR is a theory about >measurements. Whether >>or not our instruments are telling us something about the >true speed >>of light relative to the observer is another story. I >personally >>don't think they are. > >If our instruments are telling us that c is constant, and we >have no other way of determining this, one can only conclude >that it is true. Just because something is strange doesn't >make it false. So we put our laboratory on a fast plane. Then we fly around at various speeds measuring the velocity of light, and we seem suprised when we find that the measured velocity of light is independent of the speed of the plane. BUT exactly the same would of course be true if our experimenter choose to measure the speed of sound on the plane, and no one is fool enough to suggest that the 'speed of sound' is constant in 'all reference frames' are they ? >>>As to why c is constant in all reference frames, AND the 'speed of light' is NOT constant in 'all' reference frames,ether Rather The speed of light is constant in 'the one' reference frame in which it is measured,ie the one in which the experimenter is stationary relative to the medium in which the light/sound travels. In the case of our experiment of the plane, the 'medium' would be the air inside the airoplane,of course. > you have >hit >>>on the fundamental question of relativity. One would think >>>that the electric and magnetic permeability of space would >>>have something to do with it. However, the requirement for >>>constant c in all reference frames, apparently at the same >>>time, is very confusing indeed! >> >> I agree. I think the answer may be right in our faces but >we can't >>see the forest for the trees. Not to mention all the noise >and >>misinformation. > >I'm not sure how confused we are regarding relativity. -- Keith Stein
Lloyd JohnsonReturn to Topwrites >It has been stated very clearly in this discussion that photons of >different energies travel at different velocities through glass and >other transparent media. This claim is contrary to wave phenomena. > >This claim should then be tested in a laboratory using lasers of very >different frequencies to direct light through a significant length of >glass to measure the speed of light. Make sure that it is a straight >path so internal reflections don't interfere with the experiment. Is >there a difference between the speed measured using the red laser and >the green laser? So Lloyd you really thought that 'c' applied EVERYWHERE ! The sad truth is Lloyd that 'c' applies NOWHERE ! The velocity of light is everywhere a function of the medium through which the light is passing. The refractive index of a medium is inversely proportional to the speed of light in the medium, and for many substances this refractive index varies significantly with wavelength of the light. This is why glass prisms split light into its component colours. However the relationship between speed and wavelength is not simple, in that in some glasses your red light will travel faster than the green light, but in others it is vice versa. This fact has been utilised to correct for chromatic aberration in compound lenses for centuries, so new new experiments on this are really necessary at this time,i think. -- Keith Stein
In articleReturn to TopAndrew_Perry@Brown.edu (Andy Perry) writes: >In article <54aodk$20f@news.ox.ac.uk>, patrick@gryphon.psych.ox.ac.uk >(Patrick Juola) wrote: > >>This isn't right. It isn't even wrong. To the extent that tenets >>change (e.g. matter can neither be created nor destroyed), they're >>not fundamental. To the extent that they're fundamental (e.g. >>experimentation is the ultimate test of prediction), they are >>unchanging. Failure to recognize this distinction is indicative >>of a fundamental lack of understanding of the difference between >>a theory and a method. > >You are assuming that if science changed in any significant fashion >whatsoever it wouldn't be science anymore. What is the basis for this >assumption? Um, again, this isn't right -- and isn't even wrong. Think of it this way -- you're palming two cards, one in the word "significant" and the other in the word "assumption." If you define a significant change as one that makes science no longer science, then your statement is true but vacuous. If you define a significant change otherwise, then your statement is demonstrably false -- and I try not to assume falsities. Let me restate my point. No particular theory or technique is fundamental to science. There is no theory that couldn't be abandoned tomorrow if someone found a different theory that gave a closer fit to the data. What is fundamental to science are things like the tradition of empiricism, such as the idea that data trump theories -- or that the proper way to evaluate theories is by their abilities to predict new results. As this is largely what defines "science" as opposed to any other branch of applied philosophy, if you abandon these traditions, the resulting field is no longer "science." Patrick
In article <54mdl6$7u4@ccshst05.cs.uoguelph.ca> devens@uoguelph.ca (David L Evens) writes: > >...[L]inguistics is required to accurately render meaning in >translations. Bullshit. PatrickReturn to Top
In article <54nsfo$lpn@news-central.tiac.net> nanken@tiac.net (Ken MacIver) writes: >meron@cars3.uchicago.edu wrote: > >>In article <54mthq$php@news-central.tiac.net>, nanken@tiac.net (Ken MacIver) writes: >>>meron@cars3.uchicago.edu wrote: >>> >>>>In article <54ltgc$ikf@news-central.tiac.net>, nanken@tiac.net (Ken MacIver) writes: >>> >>>>Nah, science doesn't deal at all with issues like who (or what) >>>>created the universe and for what purpose. The question it deals with >>>>is "how does the universe (or selected pieces of it) work". >>> >>>Yah, science does deal with such issues because it assumes as a >>>fundamental tenet, as you do, metaphysics. >>> >>Could you be more specific, please? > >What is it about the sentence that you do not understand? What metaphysics does science assume? In what way is this assumption "a fundamental tenet"? How does an assumption of metaphysics instantly imply a regard for the issues of "who created the universe" or "for what purpose was the universe created"? I.e. your statement above says nothing. PatrickReturn to Top
jsnodgrass (jsnodgrass@mho.net) wrote: : Did someone say black hole? To question their existence is unknown to : me. I always thought that if an object became massive enough, it would : collapse on its self; even to the point that it would crush the : neutrons, protons and electrons within it. Kip S. Thorne asserted this, : but I don't know if it was ever proved... It may be that all the energy of an extremely dense object resides just barely above its event horizon. A black hole is such an object but the energy has moved beneath the event horizon, maybe creating a singularity. There are some problems with this and that is why some people suspect it. Understanding quantum gravity should help answer this question. We don't yet have that understanding. Kelly LoumReturn to Top
In article <54lld3$86p@panix2.panix.com> gcf@panix.com (G*rd*n) writes: >taboada@mtha.usc.edu (Mario Taboada): >| >| >| More importantly, you need the calculus to properly formulate >| >| >| concepts like instantaneous velocity and acceleration, without which >| >| >| kinematics cannot be studied "exactly". ... > >gcf@panix.com (G*rd*n) writes: >| >| >What do you mean by "properly formulate"? I drive my car >| >| >around, intuiting instantaneous velocity and acceleration, >| >| >without performing even informal thumbnail calculus. Or >| >| >does my nervous system do it sneakily out of sight of >| >| >my consciousness? > >patrick@gryphon.psych.ox.ac.uk (Patrick Juola): >| >| I'll bet you can't judge instantaneous velocity and acceleration >| >| particularly accurately, let alone "exactly." Tell you what, take >| >| your car out to a large parking lot, measure out 100 meters, and >| >| try to drive the car so that you are constantly and smoothly >| >| accelerating and pass the 100m mark exactly 20 seconds after you >| >| start to accelerate. Hell, I'll be nice, and give you +/- 0.5 >| >| second margin for error >| >| >| >| A first-year physics student can work out those numbers in his head. > >+@+.+ (G*rd*n) writes: >| >Obviously "pass the 100m mark exactly 20 seconds after you >| >start to accelerate" is language. My intuition does not >| >deal with the velocity and acceleration of my car through >| >language, and a good thing, too. At 100 feet per second >| >many actions must be performed with considerably less error >| >than 50 feet. > >patrick@gryphon.psych.ox.ac.uk (Patrick Juola): >| Um, if you think you need to be going 100 feet per second at >| any point in this little exercise, I don't think I want to be >| near you when you take a driving test. > >I rejected your test. 100 feet per second is typical >highway-driving speed. Which is completely irrelevant. If you think you can do better than that, you're welcome to try. If you don't like the fact that 100m is "language", I can easily draw two marks on the pavement and produce similar operational definitions for time and the margin of error. What it boils down to is that, intuitively, you simply can't solve the "general" time/distance problem -- and physicists can, to any desired degree of precision. PatrickReturn to Top
try that url http://camoes.rnl.ist.utl.pt/~pscm/3d.htmReturn to Top
This is a multi-part message in MIME format. --------------3CE774912343 Content-Type: text/plain; charset=iso-2022-jp Content-Transfer-Encoding: 7bit Beside, the persone who buy my two T-Sh weeks, will be given the gravity secret. --------------3CE774912343 Content-Type: text/html; charset=iso-2022-jp Content-Transfer-Encoding: 7bit Content-Disposition: inline; filename="menu_ing.html"Fuengirola WWW Service
Keith SteinReturn to Topwrote: >So we put our laboratory on a fast plane. Then we fly around at various >speeds measuring the velocity of light, and we seem suprised when we >find that the measured velocity of light is independent of the speed of >the plane. >BUT exactly the same would of course be true if our experimenter choose >to measure the speed of sound on the plane, and no one is fool enough to >suggest that the 'speed of sound' is constant in 'all reference frames' >are they ? >AND the 'speed of light' is NOT constant in 'all' reference frames,ether >Rather The speed of light is constant in 'the one' reference frame in >which it is measured,ie the one in which the experimenter is stationary >relative to the medium in which the light/sound travels. >In the case of our experiment of the plane, the 'medium' would be the >air inside the airoplane,of course. >Keith Stein What happens if you do the measurement inside a vacumn chamber in the aircraft so air is not the medium? Would the result be the same? Rufus
Peter Diehr wrote: > magnus.lidgren wrote: > > Q3. As I understand it, Quantum mechanics states that when a photon makes > > its way through a glass body, it is absorbed and (a new?) (re?)-emitted a number of > > times before it passes through. Every time "the photon" actually is a "real" photon it > > travels at c speed and during "the absorption period" "it" stands still ?? > > > > Majority opinion was that the photon goes through repeated absorbtions > > and re-emissions (in the forward direction) thus delaying "its" passage > > through the glass in correlation with the index of refraction for glass. > > > > This is wrong. A too strong staatement. > The photons are not absorbed and re-emitted (you go over some > of the problems with this later). No, they are scattered. What is the difference between scattering and absorption and reemission? As far as I recall, Raman scattering is, for example, described as absorption into a virtual level and reemission. > The index of refraction > is due to "coherent forward scattering". If the scattering is not coherent, then > the glass is not transparent. This is correct but compatible with absorption and reemission. > The net result is a phase shift, which is equivalent to a change of speed for the > wave front. > > question: is a scattered photon the same as the original photon? > answer: I dunno. Is this question meaningful? > > Q4.If a photon is truly absorbed by the media glass, in what way does "it" > > know (as it then has ceased to exist ?) what direction to take when > > emitted again and how does it know what frequency to recover?? Is all > > information, needed to guide the "new" photon to the right path and frequency, > > delivered from the "old" photon to the glass atoms during absorption and > > present in the glass atoms while "the photon" is in "absorpted mode".?? > > > > Majority opinion was that "true" absorption could not have happened, re-emission would > > then have random direction. Where the information about direction was situated when > > not carried by the photon was more an open question. Perhaps one photon on its way > > could guide another while this was emitted , (not quite clear, this issue). Recovering > > frequency, however, could be possible through the specific amount of energy delivered > > to electrons, going from one lower shell to a higher and then back again. A *single* photon will come out at a random direction (although not with uniform distribution). The information about direction is stored in the wave, i.e., in the many other photons in your beam. Direction is preserved via interference. The information about the frequency is stored in the energy difference between the virtual level to which the absorbed photon excites an electron and the original level of that electron. Essentially as you said. > But it only works if the passing photon has the same frequency as the emitted photon, > which in turn requires that their must be energy levels in the media which correspond > to that drop in energy. No there needn't, because the virtual levels can be arbitrarily created for a time interval permitted by the uncertainty relation. > > or ( and this is actually the question) > > 3. propagate the glass in a number of different shapes (still a signal) but slow down > > to a speed adequate to the media glass, thus substantially gain momentum in ----> Gain? Lose. (If it came from the left.) > > direction and as a consequence, in order to conserve momentum, forceing the glass to > > move in <---- direction as long as the propagation lasts. The net momentum acquired by the glass will depend on the ratio of intensity that is reflected to that that goes through. Consider a single photon. If it goes through and has the same direction (i.e. momentum) on leaving the glass as entering it, it has gained back any losses of momentum that it may have had during scattering inside the glass. Thus, it does not transfer any net momentum to the glass (it did so temporarily, while it was inside). So if you have a beam that goes through and comes out with the same direction as it enters the glass, the net momentum transfer depends on the number of photons still in that beam in comparison with that before entering the glass (it also depends on the direction of the reflected beam). So it is an intensity question.Return to Top
Ken Fischer wrote: > > Jan Pavek (p7003ke@hpmail.lrz-muenchen.de) wrote: > : At near light speed masses gets bigger. When taking two equal masses and > : accelerating them parallely to near light speed, will there be a bigger > : force between them? In their own frame of reference, no. In that of the observer seeing them move at near light speed, yes. Force is not relativistically invariant. > I think not, but between them and another travelling > : at a lower speed before them. Behind, the two masses will get a lower > : mass. Am I right? No. > Modern textbooks teach mass is invariant. And this > answers the question about how much gravity a moving mass causes. No. Because it is energy, not mass, that causes gravity, if you keep mass invariant. > "Mass increase with velocity" used to be taught, but > it was found to be misleading, and according to General Relativity, > to be incorrect. It is not incorrect. The whole question is one of semantics. If you set mass equal to E/c^2, mass isn't invariant. If you set it equal to energy/c^2 in the rest frame, it is. > So now mass is considered invariant, and > mass is "velocity independent". > And this view requires that mass only be measured > in it's own rest frame (frame of reference moving with the > mass). > > Ken FischerReturn to Top
In an article, Doug Craigen wrote: > In the one live demonstration I've seen of the Leidenfrost effect, the > professor chose to use boiling oil... Ouch! The best I ever saw was done on me when I was about 8 at the Ontario Science Center. The demonstrator poured liquid Nitrogen on our hands (we had to hold our hands very flat and at a 45-degree angle), and we watched it just run off. Later (when I was older) I could hold a bead of LN2 in my cupped hand, by moving it around. But since in both cases it was only drops, the failure of the vapor barrier wouldn't have resulted in anything *too* serious ;-). -Brian DavisReturn to Top
Allen Meisner wrote: > > In considering the spacetime curvatures of the elementary particles > themselves, one possibility has not been examined, i.e. that there are > no elementary particles. It may be that the proton and electron are > nothing but the sum of their electrostatic and gravitational > curvatures. This is easily tested. First calculate the curvature using > the electrostatic constant and charge for the electron. Then calculate > the curvature using the energy equivalent of the mass of the electron. > If the two are identical the particle has disappeared. > If a constant current is supplied to a coil the electrons are accelerating about the center of the coil with a constant velocity. There is no EM radiation for the constant current i understand. Is there a force holding the electron in its orbit around the turns of the coil, or is the coil considered the curvature of the "space" that the electron must travel in ?Return to Top
Brian: >... I don't need to answer Bealer and Levin. I've got "Cogito ergo > >sum" right here; as a premise and a conclusion supposedly derived from > >that premise, it claims to be self-sustaining. That's why you've got it= > >in your signature field, right? It's an argument unto itself, and an > >easily deflatable one at that. Zeleny: = > Once again, this approach is inadequate. Descartes explicitly states > in his replies to the Objections that "when we become aware that we > are thinking things, this is a primary notion not derived from any > syllogism" (AT VII 140). Hence to divide the cogito into premisses > and conclusion is inconsistent with its author's account of its > nature. Okay -- let's look at this account: "When we become aware that we are = thinking things, this is a primary notion not derived from any syllogism." = = The discovery takes place at the moment "we become aware that we are thinki= ng = things." To keep it in line with the cogito, let's change the plural subje= ct = to a singular one: 'when I become aware that I am thinking things'. Well,= = look at that! This 'I' that has been disovered 'thinking' has already been= = posited as thing that is 'aware'! Again, "X exists, therefore X exists." = Nifty. > >I never said that what's laugable about your God is the presumption of h= is > >(its) cognition or volition. What's laughable about this "being" is its= > >supposed ahistoricity and its naive totalizing function. Has there ever= > >been empirical evidence of any ahistorical thing, or for any > >ultimate totality? Nope. = > Has there ever been empirical evidence of mass, or energy, or force, > or spacetime, or the continuum, or any other ahistorical Platonic > universal? Certainly there has. = Uh, no. There has been empirical evidence of Queen Elizabeth and = trans-continental migration in the Americas, but there has never been = 'evidence' of mass. What would such evidence look like? "This instrument = reacts to rocks, and we've agreed to call that reaction 'mass' Look, the = instrument is reacting to *a particular rock*! Therefore, mass exists." A= re = you claiming that the rock and the 'mass' have the same existential status?= = Are you seriously asking me to believe that particular objects and man-made= = categories 'exist' in the same way? > The manifest success of scientific > theories that intimately depend on these explanatory concepts is > evidence enough to sustain the inference of their existence. Can you > conceive of any empirical evidence to the contrary? I doubt it. The 'manifest success' of scientific theories depend first and foremost on = money, material resources and a political establishment sympathetic to the = science industry. These material products *never* rely on any theory that = has not already been tested in a material environment. The actual material= = result of those tests almost never correspond to the original theory. The = theory has to then be modified to conform to the material result of the tes= t. = The naive assertion that pure abstraction is the 'source' of material = production is a fiction often perpetrated by scientists. They know very we= ll = that the 'material successes' of science depend almost entirely on data = gleaned from the *results* of actual, material experimentation. Your = 'explanatory concepts' are post facto. And if you look at the history of = science, there has *never* been a theory that was not based upon some = previously observed material phenomenon. Your argument, however, requires = us = to believe that the abstraction comes *first*, the reality later. This = fiction is peddled successfully to the children in our grade schools, but = cannot hold water here. > As regards the naivety of totalizing, consider applying your epithets at > home. What have Gorgias or Heidegger or Derrida given us to compare with= > the legacy of Aristotle and Galileo and Descartes and Einstein? And what= > could be more naively, corrosively totalizing than consistent skepticism?= For one thing, they've given us the means to penetrate the snake-oil rhetor= ic = of science. > >>Moreover, Descartes' ontological argument, like his proof of dualism, > >>can be readily translated into the mathematical formalism of symbolic > >>logic. > >Yes, I recognize that mathematics as a man-made abstraction can readily > >yield 'proofs' of other man-made abstractions. = > Please explain the process of man-made abstraction. Wherein consists > the facticity of the number 2? What sort of fabric is it made of, > and what kind of glue holds it together? The fabric is the page upon which the number two is written -- but you need= = ink to complete the product. Signifiers are real things. > >I've read Derrida and plenty of his French cronies, and I've never come > >across any reference to Goedel. I suspect they don't give a shit. I ho= pe > >I can come to terms with that... = > Your suspicion is unfounded in fact. See Deleuze, _La condition postmode= rne_. I stand corrected. > >You seem to think that continental philosophy waits breathlessly for the= > >next batch of crumpled papers that your favorite mathematicians, > >symbolists and metaphysicians have handed over upon emerging from their > >locked rooms. The Frenchies are much more interested in, say, history, > >philosophy and literature -- and especially in the history *of* these > >(yes, there is a history of history: a history of how history has been > >written in different eras) -- all of which are mediated entirely through= > >*language* (except, of course, when they have to talk about the > >metaphysicians who ignore any kind of history). Mathematics is, > >comparatively, of little importance. > Your trend meter is badly in need of calibration. Strangely enough, > metahistory no longer enjoys the status it had a decade ago. Blame > it on the fall of the Evil Empire or on the pernicious influence of > Hollywood, but academics are churning out narrative history as they > have not done since the heyday of Michelet and Ranke. To take one > example, Maurice Lever recently sold his grand biography of Sade to > the studios for over a million dollars. Does Hayden White stand a > chance of getting a quarter for the movie rights to the _Tropics of > Discourse_? Face it -- the writings of your ideological brethren > exhibit all the vivacity and charisma of Bob Dole on triple Valium. Very true about the general trend -- although it doesn't really argue again= st = my less ambitious comment about contemporary French thought. The French, i= n = my opinion, have little aptitude for narration. > In any event, mathematics is of paramount importance to anyone > wishing to understand Platonism. And I am told that purporting to > refute something you cannot understand is an egregious breach of > etiquette. I suspect I understand any philosophical movement as well as you do, and I = certainly don't require your number-crunching for any of it. > >It's not up to *me* to account for this transcendental 'meaning' that ca= n > >never be articulated! If you propose the existence of such a beast, *yo= u* > >have to account for it. What we are *given*, in the empirical world, ar= e > >signifiers and mute objects that don't have a name until we give them on= e > >-- that is, until we assign them a signifier. So where's this signified= , > >this 'meaning' that is supposedly in exact correspondence with the > >signifier, but is not the signifier itself? = > Nowhere in particular - the same place as mass or charge or number. Wow -- so tell me where I can find the device to measure meaning or 'the = signified'. If it's the same as mass and charge, the signified must be a = constant, and therefore there must be a device that has *revealed it as = such*, just as there have been devices to reveal the consistency of mass an= d = charge. > >The 'meaning' of the word 'puppy' cannot *be* that puppy I see over ther= e. > > That puppy over there is not a 'meaning', not a universal, it's a > >particular thing, a referent. A particular referent, which is always > >located in space and time, is not the same thing as a signified or a > >'meaning.' That particular thing can be said to *partake* of a > >universal, to partake of a category. Another word for category is > >'label'; the label we're talking about is entirely represented by -- and= > >has no existence apart from -- the *word* 'puppy'. There is no signifie= d, > >no Platonic form, no third thing in addition to (1) the signifier, and (= 2) > >that particular referent over there. There is no 'meaning' independent = of > >the signifier. = > Since the child might as well have asked me for a unicorn or a round > square, the object of his desire is not identifiable with any actual > or even possible concrete particular. = Yes... but my argument doesn't claim that a signifier requires an existenti= al = correspondent. I brought referents into the picture because Russell wanted= = me to account for them. > To account adequately for the discussion of wants and needs, > universals are indispensable. = ? I never claimed that universals were dispensable. The extract you quoted= = above, in fact, indicated that universals were a huge part of language. > Note also that mute or unarticulated > strivings rule out the possibility of reducing these universals to > their verbal expression and vitiate Derrida's charge that "en > derni=E8re instance, la diff=E9rence entre le signifi=E9 et le > signifiant _n'est rien_". = ? Just because a signifier is mute or unarticulated doesn't mean it's = anything more than a potential signifier. > Besides, the argument works just as well > with a proper name of a particular puppy as it does with the common > name of the young canis familiaris. Please be more clear about your referents! Which argument are you talking = about, yours or mine? In either case, I don't see how this distincion = between a name and a genus argues against what I'm saying. > Actually, it turns out that if your explanation of signification is > to incorporate the logical standard of demonstrative reasoning, its > restriction to signifiers cannot be sustained. The reason for that > is that any sort of proof theory depends on a criterion of type- > identity between sign-tokens, which cannot be a particular by > definition. = Well, yes -- since 'proof theories' require all objects to be identified wi= th = a type, they automatically reject the existential or historical world from = their domain. But this is no more than saying "In the world of universals,= = universals are indispensable." This is similar to your previous claim that= = the material products of science arise from abstractions rather than other = materials. > If meaning is a signifier[-token] that > hasn't happened yet, you have posited a thing that doesn't exist. Yes. But you forget that I said 'If you must use the word "meaning"...' as= = an addendum to the comment that you really only need the term 'singifier'. = I = just threw that in to mollify those uneasy with discarding the term = 'meaning.' > That the world could come to an abrupt end after I produce but before > you interpret this text, does not imply that my production is > potentially bereft of meaning. Again: your articulation only has 'meaning' when you or somebody else eith= er = paraphrases it ('interprets it', as you say) or re-articulates it. If the = world ended right after you spoke then it *wouldn't* have any meaning beyon= d = your interpretation because there would be nobody around to paraphrase it. = = Your use of the term 'potentially' is not helpful because we're trying to = establish what does happen, not what could happen. And notice your relianc= e = on issues about 'the future' when thinking about meaning -- it corresponds = exactly with what I'm saying about signification necessarily involving = deferral over time. = > >What allows you to talk about "states of mind"? Have you seen them? Or= > >are, once again, just positing them into existence? = > Not at all. I am INFERRING their existence from their apparent > indispensability in psychological explanation. If you want to argue > that mass is a social construct, the onus is on you to prove that > mechanical explanation can proceed on the basis of, and reduced to, > contingent and arbitrary social conventions. Mutatis mutandis, the > same goes for wants and needs, sights and sounds, affects and > beliefs, and other cognitive, conative, and perceptual categories. You're equating mass with 'states of mind'. Need I say more? When a certa= in = measuring device 'moves', we say it's measuring mass because the device = itself has been calibrated to correspond to another device that measures = mass. But when a third device measures electrical impulses from the brain,= = the only inference you can make is that the brain emits electrical impulses= =2E = Any babbling about some totality called 'the mind' which hovers over and = above these impulses is purely a product of your fantasy. > Besides, you are the one carrying on "what we are *given*, in the > empirical world." Here is a newsflash: what we are given are not > "signifiers and mute objects", but the contents of thought and > perception, from whose deliverances the existence and presence of > material objects must be inferred. Ah yes, 'contents *of* thought and perception' -- already positing two = totalities which encompass these particular 'contents.' What allows you to= = posit these totalities *in addition* to the given phenomena that you're = calling 'contents'? More than that, what allows you to posit this = metaphysical predicament in which we're encased in a bubble of subjectivity= = that always-already separates us from 'material objects'? Are you an Ayn = Randian? > We posit any number of entities on the basis of observation. My > latest practical posit is that of one Brian Artese, a rational animal > to whom I impute the ability to grasp the meaning of the theses you > are advancing. Am I jumping to conclusions? You tell me. Just because you know to attach a particular name to a particular body (in = this case, a particular cyber-signature), that does not mean that you've = located a 'mind' or a 'presence'. You've located a body that writes and = speaks. > As far as reason is concerned, > the order of temporal succession makes no difference in the validity > of an argument. = ? We're not talking about the validity of an argument, we're talking about = the manifestation of signifiers. > As far as empirical data goes, there is plenty of > evidence that the textual units of expressed meaning can be more or > less arbitrarily expanded or constricted according to the receiver's > cognitive and perceptual abilities, as happens e.g. during speed > reading. So neither the order of signifiers nor their succession > appear to be germane to comprehension. ? I never claimed that a *particular* order or succession was required. I = only claimed that all signifiers must present themselves in succession, one= = after another. Even if you transcribe the last word of this sentence, and = then the first, and then the ninth, and then the third, and then the fifth = -- = you still must do so one after another, in succession. = > I do write more carefully; try reading on the same level. I meant the > faculty of understanding that is not essentially temporal. The key point= > here is that your implicit presupposition of essential dependence require= s > proof, since the logical content of understanding is not so dependent. ?? Wait a minute -- one minute you say that essence and universals are = indispensable, then you say I need to prove you're relying essentials. I'm= = not trying to avoid whatever point you're trying to make here, but I really= = don't understand it. Zeleny: > >>Like I said, I would not expect the notion of being responsible for > >>your own beliefs to be areeable to you. Rationalism is a question > >>of cognitive norms, of which parrhesia is the first and foremost. Brian: = > >It's like a religious guy telling someone else that he's incapable of > >telling the truth because he's not of the faith. (In fact, it *is* a > >religious guy, and that's exactly what he's telling me!) Zeleny: = > I am telling you that your profession of faith is logically inconsistent > with belief in a standard of truth. If you are incapable of telling the > difference between logic and religion, so much the worse for you. > It seems reasonable to assume that material gratification would > supplant truth-telling in those who implicitly or explicitly reject > the possibility of aiming at telling the truth. = What 'profession of faith' have I made? Don't project your essentialism on= = me -- I don't need to make a gesture of 'faith' toward some hidden = everlasting truth in order to validate my sincerity. Such gestures are a = means by which 'realists' like yourself attempt to make themselves and othe= rs = believe that you're shooting for the 'right' target. My truths are = contextual, as are any honest man's. My criteria for good faith have nothi= ng = to do with your theology. > One of the things > that came out most clearly in the Sokal controversy is the concern of > the social constructionists for their shrinking budgets. Yeah, hopefully everyone will wake up to the truth that humanities = departments are wallowing in federal grants and corporate handouts, while t= he = science industry can hardly scrape together the cash to wash the windows at= = Dow Chemical. What were you saying about honesty? = > >>>The cogito is not a logical inference? Then what is that "therefore" > >>>doing in there? = > >>Just read the book. It's all explained there in black and white. = > >I have read it, and I don't remember him explaining how 'ergo' could > >signify anything other than 'a logical conclusion follows from this > >premise.' = > See above. I have, and I still haven't read anything that explains how 'ergo' does not= = imply a logical inference. = -- brianReturn to Top
In an article, "Dr. Arcane" wrote: > According to Einstein, one cannot travel the speed of light, due to stuff > like increasing mass etc. My question is, isnt speed in its self relative? Yes, but in relativity velocities do not add in a liner way. If you were on a ship traveling at 0.5 c, and then fired a tennis ball forward at 0.6 c (relative to you), An observer "stationary" (with respect to your ship) would *not* see a tennis ball going 1.1 c - he would observe a tennis ball going about 0.85 c. For relativistic velocities: u = ( u' + v ) / ( 1 + u' v / c^2 ) u' = velocity of object in moving frame v = velocity of moving reference frame u = velocity of object measured in "stationary" frame The explaination of this has to do with the other "odd" parts about relativity, like length contration and time dialation etc. All this can be derived very cleanly (if you're careful) from the Lorentz Transforms. It's a good question, BTW (at least I think so). I remember coming up with all sorts of interesting ways to confound Einstein's equations when I was in high school. Then I got to college, learned why they were wrong, and was *truly* amazed. -Brian DavisReturn to Top
In article <54tima$6r0_008@pm5-42.hal-pc.org>, charliewReturn to Topwrites >In article <54tfsp$4qa@eri.erinet.com>, kenseto@erinet.com >(Ken Seto) wrote: > >(BIG CUT) > >Tsk, Tsk! Comparing different reference frames again, are >we? This will get confusing every time. BTW, who decides >which reference frame is the "standard"? If there are only >to objects in the universe, and they are moving relative to >each other, which one is actually moving, and which one is at >rest? The one at rest in the 'medium'. The 'medium' is ubiquitous. > Or are they both moving possibly. > (if so, what are you using to >determine this)? Velocity relative to the 'medium' > >The point is this - relativity was constructed ignoring the ubiquitous 'medium' > such that >there is no standard reference frame. Until people come to >grips with this, they will continue to try comparing >different reference frames to each other, with invariably >confusing results. > > -- Keith Stein "The medium is the message"
Fred Hoyle writes:- "Education ensures that knowledge which is factual and correct carries forward from one generation to the next,and because of the forward momentum of this process technology too moves unerringly forward. Trouble comes,however,when what we think to be knowledge is actually no more than illusion. Education then serves to transmit illusions from generation to generation, with the situation getting worse all the time. A mild illusion in one generation becomes less mild in the next,each generation impressing on its successors a growinging belief in the illusion. As a mathematician might put it, the education system is unstable against the spread of incorrect beliefs; wrong ideas eventually become so deeply entrenched as to become unshakeable dogma. This is basically why, sooner or later, all nations and cultures go into decline: the burden of dogma builds up more and more until its weight causes the social structures to collapse. The situation in this respect is worse today than it ever was in the past,because the educational process at higher levels nowadays continues to the age of about twenty-five the age at which advanced students complete the requirements for the Ph.D. degree. By this time it is too late............." Extract taken from:- "Our Place in the Cosmos" by Fred Hoyle and Chandra Wickramasinghe,Phoenix Paperback,1993. Too true Fred! keith steinReturn to Top
There are certain facial types which are so bland that it doesn't take a lot for someone to look like them. They all look alike. Perhaps they just have no personality! :) I've noticed that people who seem to me to resemble each other look completely different to some other people. Resemblance, therefore, is not altogether an objective phenomenon.Return to Top