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In article <591drl$384@csugrad.cs.vt.edu>, Nathan M. UrbanReturn to Topwrote: >In article , mdj@pacific.mps.ohio-state.edu (Matt Jones) wrote: > >> Does anyone know of an analysis of the effects of the Alcubierre warp drive >> geometry [M. Alcubierre, Class. Quantum Grav. 11, L73 (1994)], >> ie. redshift/refraction/etc. > >No, sorry. > >> Barring that, any suggestions on how best to perform such an analysis? > >Choose a point in spacetime from which light is emitted, and choose the >direction in which it is emitted. Then there is a well-defined >procedure for calculating the path of the light ray. You take >Alcubierre's metric, and solve the (null) geodesic equation given those >initial data. Look in a general relativity textbook for details on the >math. Hmm... Looking up the details of the math involved in general relativity isn't exactly like looking up Planck's constant. I've never been able to get past the concept of coordinate-free geometry. -- "Knock off all that evil!"
I was just wondering, a transformer obeys (roughly) power into the primary equals the power out of the secondard (neglecting losses) and the number of turns vs voltage for primary p and secondary s, N(p)/V(p) = N(s)/V(s) But I know that if I switch off the secondary, so that the power out of the secondary side --> 0, the primary power draw goes down quite a bit but not to 0. How is this modelable? for instance if I have a particular transformer doing 120V AC to 12V Ac out, what formula could tell me how much power it leaks when I turn off the secondary side? Note also that the secondary power is not exactly zero since the coil has some non-zero capacitance that it charges through, but this is basically zero power compared to the real on state. MarkReturn to Top
Michael Niczyporuk (mikenicz@kaon.mit.edu) wrote: : I took it today also (and look forward to inspirational stories : as well!). Did you study using old GRE tests, by the way? Compared to : the previous tests in the GRE practice book, this one seemed MUCH : harder. No, I didn't study using old practice tests but some of my friends did and they say basically the same as you: MUCH harder. I wonder how the difficulty compares to the ones in the little physics GRE booklet that they give the number right and corresponding scaled scores for. What do you think the cutoff for, say, an 800 will be? Any idea? By the way, how many questions did you answer? Most of the people I talked to answered about 35 or less... I got about 54 but I've already figured out I missed about five. Incredibly stupid mistakes too. Perhaps I'll retake it in April (?... I think that's the next test date). Ugh. [...] : Almost all of the answers even had the right : units, the right "form"--you actually had to calculate the pre-factor. : The amount of problems requiring number crunching was also larger, IMO. Yes... I didn't think I'd actually have to work out an expression like hc/(lambda) to find the energy of a photon with given wavelength (then subtract the work function to get the minimum kinetic energy of an electron ejected...) That was one of the easy ones too. I must've spent a total of about 40 minutes just fishing through mathematical expressions to make sure I didn't drop a two someplace... -JohnReturn to Top
Hello! I'm a science student and, for a physic project, have to find Wien's first law. What my teacher gave me was a light bulb. I had to change the voltage (which changed the filament's temperature) and note the relative emission for each visible wavelenght ( I used from 450 to 700 nm) The maximum output I received were between 560 and 570 nm, something that seems to be consistant with a source I had read about usual 60 Watt bulb (these, it was written, had their maximum at about 550 nm and the bulb I use is less than 20 W) My wavelenghts are higher than the hotter bulb described in the article, wich is consistant with the law. So, I should get a direct variation for the relation between the Temperarure and the inverse of thee maximum output wavelenght. Now, I don't have the exact temperature of the filament, but considering the relation: total emissivity = constant*T^4, I though the fourth root of VI (voltage*amperage) would be proportional to 1/wavelenght. Yet, it doesn't work at all... anyone has any insight on why???? Jean-Frédéric Brunet, Cégep André-Laurendeau (LaSalle,Québec)Return to Top
This is a multi-part message in MIME format. --------------4FED422830F8 Content-Type: text/plain; charset=us-ascii Content-Transfer-Encoding: 7bit Peter Diehr wrote: > > Robert. Fung wrote: > > > > If these references aren't convincing enough, I'd like to hear > > constructive or corrective comments: > > > > [1] This is referred to as "aliasing" in DSP, > > in physics it's called "interference". > > A related effect is superheterodyning > > http://www.antique-radio.org/terms/shetrod.html > > which applies equally well to light waves: > > > > Physicists call "aliasing" ... aliasing! It is always caused by > the same thing: undersampling. That is, you are not sampling > fast enough. The undersampled data then has the wrong frequency > components. > > Best Regards, Peter Here's some source that shows some interesting "aliasing". Which looks remarkedly like "interference". Are you saying there is a difference between the two, or that physicists sometimes call "intereference", "aliasing" ? -- http://search.dejanews.com/dnquery.xp?query=ca314159&defaultOp;=AND&svcclass;=dncurrent&maxhits;=100&showsort;=date&site;=yahoo --------------4FED422830F8 Content-Type: text/plain; charset=us-ascii Content-Transfer-Encoding: 7bit Content-Disposition: inline; filename="ALG5.PAS" program algebra; uses graph,crt; label 111; const ho=450; ver=450; density=2.0; c=16; var i,j,col,count:integer; temp,x,y,x1,y1,q,r,basefn,rd,xmin,xmax,ymin,ymax,iotax,iotay:real; var gd,gm:integer; begin (* writeln('xmin xmax ymin ymax '); readln(xmin);readln(xmax); readln(ymin);readln(ymax); *) xmin:=-5; xmax:=5; ymin:=-5; ymax:=5; iotax:=(xmax-xmin)/ho; iotay:=(ymax-ymin)/ver; gd:=detect; initgraph(gd,gm,'e:\tp55'); for i:=1 to ho do for j:=1 to ver do begin x:=xmin+(i*iotax); y:=ymin+(j*iotay); q:=x*x; r:=y*y; basefn:= sqr(q+r)-6.75*(q+r-1)+x*(3*r-q); col:=trunc(density*basefn) mod c ; if basefn=0 then col:=0; putpixel(i,ver-j,col); if keypressed then goto 111; end; repeat until keypressed; 111: textmode(co80); end. --------------4FED422830F8--Return to Top
realistic@seanet.com (Richard F. Hall) writes: >The antithesis of reverence and faith is depression. This comes from The opposite of reverence is disgust, and the opposite of faith is rationality. -- ^-----^ Michael HuemerReturn to Top/ O O \ http://www.rci.rutgers.edu/~owl | V | \ /
schlegel@crocker.com (Mark Schlegel) writes: >I was just wondering, a transformer obeys (roughly) power into >the primary equals the power out of the secondard (neglecting >losses) and the number of turns vs voltage for primary p and >secondary s, N(p)/V(p) = N(s)/V(s) >But I know that if I switch off the secondary, so that the >power out of the secondary side --> 0, the primary power >draw goes down quite a bit but not to 0. How is this modelable? >for instance if I have a particular transformer doing 120V AC to >12V Ac out, what formula could tell me how much power it leaks >when I turn off the secondary side? Note also that the secondary >power is not exactly zero since the coil has some non-zero >capacitance that it charges through, but this is basically zero >power compared to the real on state. There is no "formula". What the primary draws depends on several characteristics of the transformer. One can model the primary winding as an inductance in series with a resistance, and for a good transformer the inductance will be relatively high and the resistance relatively low. The resistance will be the AC resistance, not the DC resistance; the difference being due to hysteresis loss in the iron core. The current drawn by the primary (no load) will not be in phase with the voltage, so the power will be less than voltage times current - a lot less for a good transformer. I think that the capacitance in a power transformer can generally be neglected. The relationship between turns ratio and voltage ratio depends on there being negligible "leakage inductance", which means that essentially all of the magnetic flux produced by the primary goes through the secondary.Return to Top
As I made serious typo's in my original post, ( Suggested that the impedance of space should be set to one rather than 2 pi, and copied some constants wrong. ), I am reposting this article and cleaning it up a bit, to make it more clear. --------- This article explains how "pi", the "exponential function", the "impedance of space", time, space, and the other physical properties arise from simple standing waves, and how the "wave function" relates to the physical properties. -------- Reality is basically observed and measured in in terms of "time intervals" and "time periods". Time intervals are most fundamentally associated with radi, and time periods are most fundamentally associated with circumferences. Both of these times are quantized by counting some external reference cycle such as those obtained from atomic clocks. The reference cycles that have been historically used to quantize observations have been "day cycles", "month cycles", "year cycles" and the cycles of spring/mass systems and pendulums. -------- Time periods come about when two bodies interact about a common point, in a common "period". In interactions, time or period is a physical property that is common to both parties to the interaction. A time period can be defined as: time(period, system) = cycles(reference) ----------------- cycles(of system) A time period is a count of the reference cycles, between each cycle of a system under observation, as observed against some assumed stable background, which is needed to determine when a cycle is complete. ----------- A separate time interval exists for each party to an interaction. This time interval is a count of the reference cycles, between when a cause is observed in a body, and a casual effect is observed in the system the body is associated with. Time interval, or distance ( X = Ct ), is the physical property that is identified with each party to an interaction. A time interval can be defined as: time(interval) = cycles(reference) ----------------- cause to effect ---------- A constant k1, associated with an isolated entity, can be defined as: cycles(reference) cause to effect k1 = ----------------- * --------------- cycles(period) cycles(reference) In the case of a perfectly symmetrical, isolated entity, k1 is equal to "2 pi". ---------- A constant k2, associated with an isolated system, can be defined as: k2 = exp(k1) In the case of a perfectly symetrical, isolated system, k2 is equal to exp(2 pi) or 535.488.... --------- The physical expression of k1 is "2 pi", the ratio of two distances", circumference and radius. The physical expression of k2 is also the ratio of two distances, a small and a large circumference. An easy to visualize physical representation of k2 would be the two circumferences ( or radi or diameters ) of a coaxial transmission line. A transmission line with a charactistic impedance of 376.733.. ohms matches the impedance of space. The physical condition that satisfies the "impedance of space" can be defined as: Z = Z0 * ln(exp(2 pi)) ------------------ 2 pi Now it is obvious that ln(exp(2 pi)) equals "2 pi" but this equation is more familiar to electrical engineers as: Z = k * ln( outer diameter / inner diameter ) where the ( outer diameter / inner diameter ) for a 376 ohm transmision line equals 535.488, and k equals ( Z0 / "2 pi" ) or 59.959.. This is commonly expressed as: Z = 59.959 ln( outer diameter / inner diameter ) As far as I know, this is the first explanation of how these two constants arise. ( 59.959 and 535.488 ) Note that Z0 is simply a constant used to scale the numeric value of impedance, and if Z0 were set equal to 2 pi, then the electrical properties could be defined from the equation: Z = ln(exp(2 pi)), or 2 pi, for pure space, and Z = ln( outer diameter / inner diameter ) otherwise. ----------------- Distance is fundamentally an interaction time which is multiplied by a constant to differentiate it from period time. This constant is of course "C", which serves no purpose other than to differentiate between the two fundamental kinds of time. Mass is simply a property used to differentiate between two interacting bodies. Humans perceive conserved "objects" having mass, varying in homogenous "media" such as time, space and magnetic flux. In the simplist case, we perceive the object Earth varying in media without considering that the Earth's media is an expression of the Sun's mass. In fact, the media associated with objects is a more complete and fundamental expression of objects than mass. This can be expressed as: mass(A) = (time(interaction B)*C)^3 ----------------------------- ( time(period) / 2 pi )^2 * G mass(B) = (time(interaction A)*C)^3 ----------------------------- ( time(period) / 2 pi )^2 * G Note that "C" is used to express interaction time as a distance, while "G" is a constant used to differentiate between object A and object B, or more fundamentally between media A and media B, such media fundamentally being standing waves. Of course, all other physical properties can be defined in terms of the time, distance and mass thus defined, but the most fundamental expression of the physical properties is: property(X) = tan(A)^L * tan(B)^M * time(period)^N * C^(L+M) / G^O where: L, M, N and O are integers C = the speed of light G = the universal gravitational constant tan(A) = orbital velocity(A) / C tan(B) = orbital velocity(B) / C In other words, what we perceive as velocities are basically tangent functions associated with what we perceive as interacting bodies. Note that when "C" and "G" are set equal to one, that the simple elegance of reality becomes apparent. ---------- Although I mentioned that I would explain how the "wave function" and quantum mechanics relates to all this, rather than make this article too long, I suggest that anyone who is interested in pursuing this, or wants more graphical details on these concepts visit my Web site, and read some of the articles. Read "Potter explains all" on my main menu, and some of the articles under "Random thoughts". In these articles, I assert that Special Relativty is basically the addition of tangents: tan(A+B) = tan(A) +- tan(B) ----------------- 1 +- tan(A) * tan(B) and that spectrum of hydrogen-like ions is basically a trig identity: sin(A)^2 + sin(B)^2 = 1 which after a little juggling is expressed as: v = Rydberg's constant * ( 1/M^2 - 1/N^2 ) ---------- The bottom line is that all this stuff ( reality ) is just standing waves and geometry. The physical constants "Z0", "C" and "G" are unnecessary, and should be discarded as they complicate reality by creating a plethora of unnessary properties. This makes people look at the properties as separate things, rather than as a part of a simple matrix. --------- I might mention that the issue of setting the impedance of space equal to one, depends upon whether the standard of measurement should be based on circumferences ( 2 pi ) or radi ( radians ). Currently we measure time in cycles, while we measure most of the other properties, including distance, mass, etc. in radians. Radians have to do with "bodies" and interaction times, while cycles have to do with systems and period times. I, of course, opt for cycles, as ultimately, even interaction times are measured in cycles, and determining the coincidence of "cause" events, and "effect" events have an "uncertainty" about them. ( Cycles can be "zero beat", intervals cannot. ) Tom Potter http://pobox.com/~tdpReturn to Top
Marco Binder wrote: > > Peter F. CurranReturn to Topwrote: > > > There IS, or rather MAY be substance to this > > claim. Although nothing can go faster than > > "c", the speed of light in a vacuum, the speed > > of light is slower as it is passing through > > matter. The classic example is "Cherenkov (sp?) > > Radiation" which can be seen in some nuclear > > reactors. Particles traveling through matter > > faster than the speed of light in that medium > > can cause a radiative effect similar in nature > > to a sonic boom. I'm told it produces a glow. > > Hi, > > I'm just a high-school student, but as far as I know, the experiments at > Cologne (and at some American universities, too) really produced > particles, moving faster than the speed of light in vacuum, so at aprx. > 4.7 times c. This effect was only possible because of tunneling > particles (eg electrons) through a barrier (tunneling = let things pass > unpassable barriers; or so). So they really transmitted information > faster than light! Quantum effects! > > Ciao, > > Marco You are mis-interpreting what they did. NO information was transferred faster than light. Best Regards, Peter
Christian Campbell wrote: > > I am a buyer of technical books at Brown University. So, I thought I'd go > to the people who read these books to find out which books are "must > have's!" If you have any suggestions, please e-mail me. I am > particularly interested in recent non-computer titles, but I also stock a > number of technical classics. > > Thank you, > > -- > Christian Eric Campbell > Buyer, Technical Books & Custom Publishing > phone(401)863-2023 fax(401)863-2233 I publish chemical engineering books, with a focus on safety. The first title is "Writing Operating Procedures For Process Plants." Soon to be released are: "Process Safety Management", "Audit Protocols For Process Safety" and "Checklists For Hazards Analysis." I can be reached at: Southwestern Books 2437 Bay Area Blvd, Ste 195 Houston, TX 77058 Phone: (281) 488-7767 Fax: (281) 488-2259 E-mail: swbooks@iwl.net Regards, Ian SuttonReturn to Top
In article <58v7us$hht@trojan.neta.com>, Blair P Houghton (blair@trojan.neta.com) writes: >Peter F. CurranReturn to Topwrote: >>Immesurable? Not so! We have lots of ways of accurately >>measuring time which all tend to agree with one another. >>The only real discrepency is our subjective "feeling" of >>time. Time exists independently of us, and our minds >>were never intended to be accurate chronological measuring >>devices. > >Not quite. > >Our minds in certain circumstances are uncannily >accurate at temporal tasks. We don't have an innate >sense of enumerated time, but those of us who are >well-coordinated are capable of impressive feats. > >Juggling, quarterbacking, comedy, and music are obvious >examples of ways our minds can apply time with precision. I'm probably missing something obvious, but can you tell me why any of these require knowledge of "objective" or clock time ? I don't see that a comedian knows that his routine runs for (say) 1.00 minute, and music is often played at different speeds.
In article <591g5t$5n4@dismay.ucs.indiana.edu>, glhansen@copper.ucs.indiana.edu (Gregory Loren Hansen) wrote: > In article <591drl$384@csugrad.cs.vt.edu>, > Nathan M. UrbanReturn to Topwrote: > >Choose a point in spacetime from which light is emitted, and choose the > >direction in which it is emitted. Then there is a well-defined > >procedure for calculating the path of the light ray. You take > >Alcubierre's metric, and solve the (null) geodesic equation given those > >initial data. Look in a general relativity textbook for details on the > >math. > Looking up the details of the math involved in general relativity isn't > exactly like looking up Planck's constant. I've never been able to get > past the concept of coordinate-free geometry. Yeah. :) He asked for suggestions on how to do it, so I gave him a rough idea of how it's done, but I didn't want to type in an entire explanation of how you do it. Calculating geodesics isn't really as hard as it's made out to be, though. I'd recommend looking in Martin's _General Relativity: A First Course for Physicists_ for some examples. -- Nathan Urban | nurban@vt.edu | Undergrad {CS,Physics,Math} | Virginia Tech
In article <591htc$1c6@news.asu.edu>, jjtom4@imap2.asu.edu wrote: > Michael Niczyporuk (mikenicz@kaon.mit.edu) wrote: > : I took it today also (and look forward to inspirational stories > : as well!). Did you study using old GRE tests, by the way? Compared to > : the previous tests in the GRE practice book, this one seemed MUCH > : harder. > No, I didn't study using old practice tests but some of my friends did and > they say basically the same as you: MUCH harder. Am I the only one who thought the real thing was easier than the practice tests? (Not that it was all that easy!!) > I wonder how the > difficulty compares to the ones in the little physics GRE booklet that > they give the number right and corresponding scaled scores for. What do > you think the cutoff for, say, an 800 will be? Any idea? I can tell you what it was for the October exam. It was a raw score of 47. (That's Correct - Wrong/4.) > By the way, how > many questions did you answer? Most of the people I talked to answered > about 35 or less... I got about 54 but I've already figured out I missed > about five. If you got 49 correct and only 5 wrong, then that's an 800 right there. I personally missed over 30, but then again, I guessed like mad and put down answers for nearly everything. > Incredibly stupid mistakes too. They always are. :) -- Nathan Urban | nurban@vt.edu | Undergrad {CS,Physics,Math} | Virginia TechReturn to Top
Edward Green wrote: > > Jude GiampaoloReturn to Topwrote: > > >beckwith@pop.southeast.net (Matt Beckwith) wrote: > > > >> The same could be said of a screwdriver. Not the screw part, the > >> thickness of the handle. It gives you a larger turning radius, > >> trading force for distance. But you can't start turning until you > >> have overcome the initial resistance of the screw. > >> > >> Finally, are these machines levers? If not, what kind of machine are > >> they? I don't think they're screws, since a screw involves a ramp > >> arrangement, and that's not what's at work here. > > > >Wheel and axle? > > I think the bottle opener and screwdriver are indeed levers. The > mechanical advantage is present even in the static situation. The > key search phrase for seeing this is "The principle of virtual work"; > viz -- the work done on the screw as it just starts to turn also > gives you the force multiplication in the static case. > > Somebody tell me if I am talking gibberish. A screwdriver is a lever. Regarding physics, torque is the proper subject. Torque = t = r X F, where r is the perpendicular distance from the center of the screwdriver to it handle (the radius of the handle). This is aso called the "moment arm". F is the force which you apply. r X F is read "r cross F" and is the vector cross product. Because it is a cross product, the direction of the torgue vector is perpendicular to the plane containing the two vectors r and F. Even when the lid doesn't move, there is stress introduced into the metal of the lid by the application of torque. Apply enough torgue, and the metal will fail.
On 14 Dec 1996 19:33:29 GMT, curran@remove_this.rpi.edu (Peter F. Curran) wrote: >There are several ways to measure physical time to great >degrees of accuracy totally independently of own perception, Yet what bearing does that have on our _experience_ of time? You can measure the dimesion of time with the acuracy of a micrometer. Maybe one day we'll find a fine structure in it - maybe it's quantised. But these measurements belong to a world in which there is no consciousness and, therefore, no such thing as "now". What matters about a road is not the exact composition of the tarmac but the way we're moving along it. >and they are more or less in agreement with each other, (but >not necessarily with us). I therefore feel time is not >effected by our perception of it. No, _that_ kind of time isn't. > I also don't really feel >that the past, present or future have to have any sort of >meaning other than just "being". > That's a cop out. Past present and future are central to our existance. It's hard to think of anything that has _more_ meaning. Why do we remember the past and not the future? Why can't we return our consciousness and fully reexperience a past event, or even try a past decision a different way and see how that comes out? Why are we stuck to the now, even though it's dragging us to our deaths? Now is a real thing. It's as real as pain and harder to ignore. ---------------------------------+---------------------------------- I was born weird: This terrible | Like Pavlov's dogs we are trained compulsion to behave normally is | to salivate at the sound of the the result of childhood trauma. | liberty bell. ---------------------------------+---------------------------------- MalcolmReturn to Top
bd518@FreeNet.Carleton.CA (Jean Parent) wrote: > > >Here's a surprising news from reuter ; > >Anyone have an opinion about that ? Li, Be, H - No lattice phonons, no excitons, no low-lying d-orbitals, no magnetic interactions, and the ions are hard acids and bases - not even polarizable. Cooper pairing , anyone? And if not, wherein lies the basis for bosonic superconductivity? I want to see the technical readout in a refereed journal. It's either Nobel-caliber discovery set to bedevil theoreticians, or grandiloquent pap. [snip] >Return to TopLYON, France (Reuter) - A team of French researchers said >Wednesday they had made a major breakthrough in the field of >superconductivity, saying they had found a powder that could >conduct electricity at room temperature with no loss of power.
>The team led by Serge Contreras, of the National Institute >of Applied Science in Lyon, in central France, found the powder >acted like a superconductor at 77 F, scientist Jean-Pierre >Bastide, the director of Contreras' laboratory, told Reuters.
>That is around 200 F higher than other known >superconductors, Bastide said.
>In addition, the powder is composed of lithium, beryllium >and hydrogen while previously discovered superconductors have >been ceramics or oxides, Bastide said.
>``Its novelty is that both its structure and its materials >are different,'' he said. ``We must proceed cautiously, however, >as this discovery has to be confirmed,'' Bastide added.
>He said, for example, that the scientists had not yet >determined how to measure the powder's resistance, nor how to >remove impurities.
>The team, which includes scientists from the National Center >for Scientific Research and the Atomic Energy Commission in >Paris and the Claude Bernard University in Lyon, has submitted >its findings for publication in the Proceedings of the Academy >of Sciences in Paris, Bastide said.
>Superconductivity is a poorly understood phenomenon in which >electric current flows through some materials with virtually no >resistance and no loss of power.
>All materials that can conduct electricity become >superconductors at ``absolute zero'' -- minus 459 F -- a >discovery made in 1911.
>But some materials are superconductors at higher >temperatures, a fact discovered just a decade ago which opened >up the tantalizing prospect of dramatic reductions in power >generation, and thus fuel consumption and pollution as well.
>The phenomenon also has been found to have important >applications in computer science and electronics.
>Scientists have, for example, developed super-efficient >electric motors with superconductor components, though they can >operate only in super-cold rooms.
>Since 1986, scientists have identified a number of materials >able to carry an electric current with virtually no resistance >at higher and higher temperatures, though still well below zero.
>But until now, no one has identified a material acting as a >superconductor at room temperatures.
>Bastide said the chemical identified by the French research >team would not be suitable for use in applications such as power >cables, since it was a powder.
>But it could prove useful in electronics applications where >it could be applied in thin layers, such as in a microchip, he >said.
[snip] -- Alan "Uncle Al" Schwartz UncleAl0@ix.netcom.com ("zero" before @) http://www.ultra.net.au/~wisby/uncleal.htm (Toxic URL! Unsafe for children, Democrats, and most mammals) "Quis custodiet ipsos custodes?" The Net!
In <582cr1$gd3@news.iastate.edu>, abian@iastate.edu (Alexander Abian) wrote: : (A*) An Abian unit (i.e.,1 Abian) is taken as the mass Mo of the Cosmos at This means Mo = 1 Abian : the Big Bang, i.e., at T = 0 Abian. For practical considerations : Mo can be taken as 1O^n (for a suitable n) Abian units. Thus, Now is Mo = 10^n . How do you explain. So far for inconsistent statements. : (1) Mo indicates the Mass M (in Abians) of the Cosmos at T = 0 (Abian). : The following initial conditions are assumed: : (2) 0Return to TopMo. : Next, based on (3), we give a mathematical formulation of m mentioned : in (A). From (A) it follows that m = Mo - M where M is given by (3). : Thus : Abian : (4) m = Mo - M = Mo (1 -exp( T/(kT - Mo))) : >from which it follows 1 - (m/Mo) = exp (T / (kT - Mo)) and therefore : (5) T = -Mo(Log (1 -(m/Mo))/(1 - k Log(1 - (m/Mo)) : where Log is the natural e-log. : We note that (4) as well as (5) expresses the equivalence of Mass and : Time. For instance they say that m units of Cosmic mass is : spent to produce T Abian units of Cosmic Time. Actually not. Not (5) but (A*) expresses the mass - time equivalence, namely where you introduced the same "Abian-Unit" for mass and time. : Now Mr. Painter how do you show that (A*), (1),(2),(3),(4),(5) : lead to a contradiction! How? Equations are there - just show : how. Those are equations, given explicitly, nothing more explicitly : can be given! Just show how do you arrive at a contradiction. No further comment. I see two contradictions - see above. : As for the units just read (A*). As far as experimental data is : concerned I said I HAVE NONE since I , as yet have no COSMIC : MASSMETER. But that is a detail. : ABIAN vs EINSTEIN refers to the radical difference of the notion of : TIME between ABIAN and EINSTEIN. For ABIAN, TIME is a manifestation : of MASS and their equivalence are given by (4) or (5). For EINSTEIN, : TIME is what the dial of a watch indicates. Why don't you address : your questions to the followers of the establishment and ask them : WHOSE WATCH ? THE DIAL OF WHOSE WATCH!! : For ABIAN, Time is Mass and not a dimension on par with spatial : dimensions. For EINSTEIN Time is a dimension on par with a spatial : dimension. You compare your half-physics to Einstein ?!? Well you say the Abian formula (4) states equivalence of time and mass just as Einsteins formula E=m*c^2 states equivalence of energy and mass. The difference is, that you just wrote on a piece of paper M = Mo exp(T/(kT - Mo)) with scalar k < 1 and claim, this is somewhat related to reality. While Einstein first OBSERVED that the speed of light is constant, then made a (thought-) experiment, and then derived his famous formula. You don't have anything that leads to (4), except your bias, that time and mass are equivalent. Then you assume your opinion proved, because you were able to put it into some formula. : Just ask the Establishment " the dial of whose watch measures the TIME" : and let me know their answer. The question is Whose Watch? Post your answer. : -- In GR it does not matter whose watch measures the time. Every measurement is correct (thats the whole point of "relativity"!) -Udo Stenzel
In <58iunq$vv@ccshst05.cs.uoguelph.ca>, devens@uoguelph.ca (David L Evens) wrote: : NNTP-Posting-Host: ccshst01.cs.uoguelph.ca : X-Newsreader: TIN [version 1.2 PL2] : Xref: news.uni-leipzig.de sci.physics:167537 sci.skeptic:181275 alt.sci.physics.new-theories:32775 alt.consciousness:29144 sci.physics.relativity:5284 : Steve Thornton (thornton@netidea.com) wrote: : : A friend called today, said he heard on CBC radio a story about a : : Univ. of Cologne scientist who had made something go 4.7 times the : : speed of light. I said nonsense. He asked me to look into it. Is there : : any substance (no pun intended) to this? : I too heard this interview. : He says that he has transmitted information at 4.7c through quantum : tunneling (he was, apparently, attempting to measure the speed of quantum : tunneling). That's what I heard, too. : The device he used has a filtering effect, however, which may (or may : not) have created an illusion of superluminal velocity. In certain kinds : of frequency filtering of goups of QM particles, it is possible to get : apparently superluminal motion by essentially cutting off the 'back end' : of a group of particles. The particles with higher velocities in certain : kinds of experiments are better localised than the slower ones, which : causes their peak at the detector to arrive sooner than the peak for the : original group would have, had it been allowed through. This creates an : apparent superluminal motion where none exists. In the mentioned experiment, the waveform after the tunnel was shown by a oscilloscope. I can hardly imagine that the back end could be cut off, cause the waveform looked exactly as before. : It may be that this is the real cause of the effect, even such a large : one, if the tunnel is short enough. I rather doubt that he'd have missed : this possibility, however, because this is precisely the sort of thing : you'd expect to be the first explanation he'd consider for this rather : astounding result. If I remember right, the tunnel in the first experiment (the one with microwaves) was about 8cm long. In a second experiment (with a laser) the tunnel was a mirror or the metal coating of the mirror, to be exact. I dunno, how long a tunnel must be to allow the effect described above. Another explanation is that SR states, no WAVES can travel at superlumuinal speed. This includes paticles but it can't be applied to quantum tunneling because in the tunnel there are no waves. Therefore it is possible, that the speed in the tunnel exceeds c. I also heard theories, that the time spent in the tunnel could be zero. This would mean endless velocity. Even negative velocities could be possible (the signal exits the tunnel before entering it). From what I know of the mathematics of the tunneling effect, instant transmission (endless velocity) sound the most probable.Return to Top
imran9@Default.ibm.net wrote: >Hello, > My name is Asim Imran from the John Fraser Secondary School in >Missassauga, Canada. I would really appreciate it if you can answermy following >question at imran9@ibm.net: > >How are general relativity and quantum theory in conflict with one another? > >I hope you can give me an answerbefore the 14tth or 15th. Thank you. In that narrow corridor where quantum theory and relativity overlap, relativity invariably gives wrong predictions vs observations. Look up the Einstein-Podolsky-Rosen Paradox, the Bell Inequality (Scientific Aemrican had an excellent article on the experiment some 5 years ago) and especially quantum eraser experiemtns (e.g., in a Science December 1995 communication, and before and after). There appears to be a fundamental interconnectedness of quantum-entangled particles which allows deterministic and consistent collapse of their superposition of wavefunctions (Schroedinger's Cat) instantaneously at arbitrarily large distances of separation. Relativity is founded upon the postulate that information cannot travel at faster than lightspeed. Nothing in quantum theory handles gravity. It is therefore likely that neither theory is wrong, as such, but that both are incomplete. It is also possible that both theories are as epicycles were to a Copernican universe: Arbitrarily accurate approximations which are hellishly complex because they are bad models of the phenomena. -- Alan "Uncle Al" Schwartz UncleAl0@ix.netcom.com ("zero" before @) http://www.ultra.net.au/~wisby/uncleal.htm (Toxic URL! Unsafe for children, Democrats, and most mammals) "Quis custodiet ipsos custodes?" The Net!Return to Top
schlegel@crocker.com (Mark Schlegel) wrote: > >I was just wondering, a transformer obeys (roughly) power into >the primary equals the power out of the secondard (neglecting >losses) and the number of turns vs voltage for primary p and >secondary s, N(p)/V(p) = N(s)/V(s) > >But I know that if I switch off the secondary, so that the >power out of the secondary side --> 0, the primary power >draw goes down quite a bit but not to 0. How is this modelable? >for instance if I have a particular transformer doing 120V AC to >12V Ac out, what formula could tell me how much power it leaks >when I turn off the secondary side? Note also that the secondary >power is not exactly zero since the coil has some non-zero >capacitance that it charges through, but this is basically zero >power compared to the real on state. In the absence of a connected secondary, the magentic field of the primary expands and contracts, driven by the power source. You therefore have an LRC circuit with impedence, heavy on the L ,medium on the R, light on the C. -- Alan "Uncle Al" Schwartz UncleAl0@ix.netcom.com ("zero" before @) http://www.ultra.net.au/~wisby/uncleal.htm (Toxic URL! Unsafe for children, Democrats, and most mammals) "Quis custodiet ipsos custodes?" The Net!Return to Top
you@somehost.somedomain (JOE) wrote: >Hi, > If someone has the time could you please explain what happens to the >boiling point of water in a vacume. A fellow at work tells me that if you >subject a volume of water (at room temperature) to a vacume it will boil >until it freezes. Is this true????? > Thanks for your time, > Shawn > critter@proaxis.com > Boiling is when the vapor pressure of a liquid equals the ambient pressure. In really round numbers, the vapor pressure of water near room temp in torr is about the same as the temp in degrees C (with atmospheric pressure being 760 torr). Even a modest mechanical vacuum pump can get down to 0.100 torr or lower. It is therefore perfectly reasonable for a flask of water vigorously agitated and pumped to cool sufficiently by boiling (evaporation; remember, on gram of water at 100 C flashing in vapor at 100 C has a latent heat of vaporization of 540 cal/gm!) to freeze solid. The resulting ice will continue to evaporate solid to gas, a process called sublimation, and the basis of freeze-drying (lyophilization). -- Alan "Uncle Al" Schwartz UncleAl0@ix.netcom.com ("zero" before @) http://www.ultra.net.au/~wisby/uncleal.htm (Toxic URL! Unsafe for children, Democrats, and most mammals) "Quis custodiet ipsos custodes?" The Net!Return to Top
In articleReturn to Top, Paul Vigay wrote: >I'm a bit confused. If you >send a signal (in this case Mozart) and it is received somewhere in a quicker >timeframe than the speed of light (easily measured, knowing the speed of >light and the distance between the sensors), then presumably that signal has >travelled at a rate exceeding C. Right. That's exactly what *didn't* happen.
In articleReturn to Top, merk077@servtech.com (Gregoire) writes: >Peter F. Curran wrote: >-> >-> There are several ways to measure physical time to great >-> degrees of accuracy totally independently of own perception, >-> and they are more or less in agreement with each other, (but >-> not necessarily with us). I therefore feel time is not >-> effected by our perception of it. I also don't really feel >-> that the past, present or future have to have any sort of >-> meaning other than just "being". >-> >Mr. Curran has done something to his consciousness that is all too >common today (and perhaps common since language & tools allowed us >to *conceive* of existence objectively). Imagine slowly awakening >as a babe and discovering first the difference between "me" or "I" >and "it" or "them". Discovering, in other words, embodiment. Next >comes memory and expectation. Mama will soon come back, because >she has here before. This is time-awareness. Soon we see it from >the outside (as it were) and believe time is our tool. > Actually, this seems more like an awareness of sequence, or cause and effect, or pattern-matching. If momma comes back in one minute or two, it still tends to reinforce the pattern and subsequent expectation. However, the infant doesn't distinguish the difference between momma arriving in 60 seconds, or 61 seconds. >At some point, someone measured this movement, this change which >seems to take place sub-atomically and with no small degree of >randomness. Our crude clocks which *seem* to click with a certain >sort of regularity are not TIME or even its measure. They are >simply controlled motion. The alarm? Awake, my friends. > You notion of time is probably in opposition to that of many others. The randomness you speak of is inherent in observation of the very small, but these are not the observations used to measure time to great accuracy. You say clocks are "controlled motion", and my response would be to say, "controlled with respect to what?" The answer is of course, time. :) - Pete Curran
Alan \"Uncle Al\" Schwartz (uncleal0@ix.netcom.com) wrote: [it is]... : also possible that both theories are as epicycles were to a Copernican : universe: Arbitrarily accurate approximations which are hellishly : complex because they are bad models of the phenomena. Huh... That's exactly the analogy a friend of mine and I came up with. Interesting. Tantalizing to think that there is something very basic about the universe that noone's noticed yet that would make all these wacky ideas in quantum mechanics seem perfectly natural. -JohnReturn to Top
jeanbeury@aol.com wrote: > It sounds like he's saying that these supposedly "mysterious" quantum > effects are really nothing but consequences of the use of *waves* (in > Fourier superposition) to describe the behavior of particles. Can that be > right? As far as the Heisenberg uncertainty principle goes, yeah. It's not that hard to understand if you just think about it the right way. Imagine trying to play a really low note for a really short time. For example, 3 octaves below middle C corresponds to about 32 vibrations per second. Can you play a note like that for less than 1/32 of a second? Then remember that momentum in quantum mechanics is just the same as frequency (in the spatial directions).Return to Top
>Hi, > If someone has the time could you please explain what happens to the >boiling point of water in a vacume. A fellow at work tells me that if you >subject a volume of water (at room temperature) to a vacume it will boil >until it freezes. Is this true????? > Thanks for your time, > Shawn > critter@proaxis.com Yes, it is true. The boiling point of a liquid is defined as the temperature at which the vapor pressure equals the external pressure. In a vacuum, the external pressure is zero, thus water will boil at any temperature as long as it is still a liquid.Return to Top
ascle@uaa.alaska.edu wrote: >What's the speed at which gravity propogates through space? >How is this speed found? >and how is it determined experimentaly? >Please e-mail and post. I havn't been able to find anthing on it except a book >on gravity with 2000 pages of intergals. blah! >thanks >ascle@orion.alaska.edu >chris Weak gravitational waves propagate at the speed of light. In a linearized theory of GR, that is the nearly flat lspace-time limit, it is possile to derive a wave equation for the propagation of gravitational radiiation, and the speed of those waves turns out to be c. I'm not sure what happens in the strong field limit, though.Return to Top
In article <591o8n$cmm@csugrad.cs.vt.edu>, Nathan M. UrbanReturn to Topwrote: >In article <591htc$1c6@news.asu.edu>, jjtom4@imap2.asu.edu wrote: > >> Michael Niczyporuk (mikenicz@kaon.mit.edu) wrote: > >> : I took it today also (and look forward to inspirational stories >> : as well!). Did you study using old GRE tests, by the way? Compared to >> : the previous tests in the GRE practice book, this one seemed MUCH >> : harder. > >> No, I didn't study using old practice tests but some of my friends did and >> they say basically the same as you: MUCH harder. > >Am I the only one who thought the real thing was easier than the >practice tests? (Not that it was all that easy!!) Most people I have spoken to in the last couple years have thought the real thing was harder. When I took it, I thought it was somewhat harder, but not dramatically. I also got more wrong than I expected (But still enough right to do well) > >> I wonder how the >> difficulty compares to the ones in the little physics GRE booklet that >> they give the number right and corresponding scaled scores for. What do >> you think the cutoff for, say, an 800 will be? Any idea? > >I can tell you what it was for the October exam. It was a raw score of >47. (That's Correct - Wrong/4.) Out of curiousity, how do you know this? My score report didn't include any comparison of raw score to scaled score. OTOH, sounds about like I would expect. > >> By the way, how >> many questions did you answer? Most of the people I talked to answered >> about 35 or less... I got about 54 but I've already figured out I missed >> about five. This sounds fairly typical based on people I've talked too. You probably got more wrong than you thought you did. I got about twice as many wrong as I was expecting. > >If you got 49 correct and only 5 wrong, then that's an 800 right >there. I personally missed over 30, but then again, I guessed like mad >and put down answers for nearly everything. Well, if you answered almost everything and only got 30 wrong, you must have done pretty well. Good luck to all -- ====================================================================== Kevin Scaldeferri University of Maryland "The trouble is, each of them is plausible without being instinctive"
Can anyone introduce me to a listing of the definitive definitions of "points" and "connectivity" in physics? Thanks - C JohannessenReturn to Top
lbrunet@netcom.ca(LUC BRUNET) wrote: > >Hello! > >I'm a science student and, for a physic project, have to find Wien's >first law. What my teacher gave me was a light bulb. I had to change >the voltage (which changed the filament's temperature) and note the >relative emission for each visible wavelenght ( I used from 450 to 700 >nm) The maximum output I received were between 560 and 570 nm, >something that seems to be consistant with a source I had read about >usual 60 Watt bulb (these, it was written, had their maximum at about >550 nm and the bulb I use is less than 20 W) My wavelenghts are higher >than the hotter bulb described in the article, wich is consistant with >the law. So, I should get a direct variation for the relation between >the Temperarure and the inverse of thee maximum output wavelenght. >Now, I don't have the exact temperature of the filament, but >considering the relation: total emissivity = constant*T^4, I though the >fourth root of VI (voltage*amperage) would be proportional to >1/wavelenght. Yet, it doesn't work at all... > >anyone has any insight on why???? > > Jean-Frédéric Brunet, Cégep André-Laurendeau (LaSalle,Québec) > Check your units,...in general, Wien's law is: Peak wavelength = .29cm / Temp. in Degrees KReturn to Top
Gregoire wrote: > Mr. Curran has done something to his consciousness that is all too > common today (and perhaps common since language & tools allowed us > to *conceive* of existence objectively). Imagine slowly awakening > as a babe and discovering first the difference between "me" or "I" > and "it" or "them". Discovering, in other words, embodiment. Next > comes memory and expectation. Mama will soon come back, because > she has here before. This is time-awareness. Soon we see it from > the outside (as it were) and believe time is our tool. > > At some point, someone measured this movement, this change which > seems to take place sub-atomically and with no small degree of > randomness. Our crude clocks which *seem* to click with a certain > sort of regularity are not TIME or even its measure. They are > simply controlled motion. The alarm? Awake, my friends. > Hello, Greg: Two questions: 1. Exactly what would you have us awake to? 2. a) What is the translation of your sig. quotation and b) what language is it? > -- > Greg NixonReturn to Top> > "Ya yé, moin nan sang hé!" -- Alan Causes precede their effects absolutely in all frames of reference in time as well as space and in the transcendental as well as the material.
Why Is Mind Control Also Lives Control? (Part Eight) " Why will the Current Mind Control System And The Career Officers (Under-cover Operators) Destroy The Freedom And Democracy of Our Society?" Our current society is that which represents freedom and democracy. However, the freedom and democracy which the US citizens enjoy today will be slowly eroded away by the mind (machine) control operators if we do not stop their crimes or the Congress does not enact laws to stop them abusing the invisible wave weapon. How would the mind control operators destroy the current democratic and freed society which we live in? Before we answer the question, we should know why this mind control surveilliance system has been built? I would show you the information below; As early as 1970, Zbigniew Brzezinski, later National Security Advisor to President Jimmy Carter, predicated a "more controlled and directed society" would gradually appear, linked the technology. This society would be dominated by an elite group which impresses voters by allegedly superior scientific know-how. Unhindered by the restraints of traditional liberal values, this elite would not hesitate to achieve its political ends by using the latest modern techniques for inflencing public behavior and keeping society under close surveillance and control (these words is the hints which the research of mind machine has remarkble progress). Technical and scientific momentum would then feed on the situation it exploits. Brzezinski predicted (see page 200 on _Angels Don't Play This HARRP_). In August 1971, there is a general efficiency surveillance security system program proposal submitted to the President Nixon. It proposed to "wire" every "house", "car", and "boat" in America. The plan included a blueprint for a government- operated propaganda system via a TV network that would have linked every state, city, and home (See page 181 on the _Uncloaking the CIA_). Although this program wasn't accepted At that time. It did prove that they did have this plan and should have the technology to accomplish it for a long time. How could they propose to "wire" every house, car and boat in American? It must use the radio wave or low radiation wave to network these objects (house, car, boat, etc.), otherwise, they cannot achieve this goal. This program has proven that these security officers have the technology to use the low radiation wave or radio wave to "wire" the house, car, boat, etc. (via a TV network that would have linked every city, state, home) since 1971. In 1980, the US Senate passed the Intelligence Oversight Act of 1980. This Bill include establishing no standards for covert operations or employment of academics, clergymen or journalists as spies or informers and no penalty for the public disclosure of agents working for the US. (See page 73 on _CIA_ by Brian Freemantle) The above Bill already prove that the Intelligence Agencies were allowed to build the entire nation surveillance system (as the general efficiency surveillance system plan of the former President Nixon) if they could operate it covertly (What a coincidence, the GWEN system also has begun to be built since 1980. A tower of this system can prove [emit] VLF to 360 cycle degree in 250- 300 miles distances). So this entire nation surveilliasnce system should have been built in 1980 because they have waited the law to legally build it for a long time. Furthermore, besides the mind machine, this system should have been used to in conjuction with the Invisible wave weapon (microwave or radio waves weapon) at that time in order to control the activation of human organismReturn to Top