Subject: Re: World's second most beautiful syllogism
From: hetherwi@math.wisc.edu (Brent Hetherwick)
Date: 13 Nov 1996 18:34:15 GMT
AP, you are non-chivalrous to attact lady sweet like Darla. Bad man like
you writes evil. You are always wrong! I shall vanquish you with quick
strokes of my Kevorkian-style. Point-by-point, I've got logic that
smushes your arguments like a wet toad under a car on a rainy night in
South Dakota. Read, and weep.
Archimedes Plutonium (Archimedes.Plutonium@dartmouth.edu) wrote:
:
: You have failed to see my point and my message. The point is, again,
: that if you seek to understand the world around you and you do so by
: only pen and paper on your laziness and talking with someone such as a
: math proof, that understanding can never be as important as another
: person who draws into his quest for understanding of the world by
: encompassing vast number and large part of his surroundings.
How dare you call Darla lazy?!? I'll bet that she exercizes much more
than you do! And why this pen-and-paper phobia? There's only ink in a
pen, and it won't kill you, unless you eat it, and I'll bet that it
tastes bad. But maybe you like pen-ink, since you are so much a
pea-addict.
: If your son spends 4 years at a school pushing pen and paper, no
: matter how cute and heavy.
How dare you call Darla's adorable baby boy fat?!? YOU'RE the fat one,
I'll bet. You never exercize, you tub-of-lard. Get off of your fat ass
and run a lap, macaroni-tummy. I'll bet that lots of mathematicians
could kick your celluliteeey derr-i-ere. Especially ones who lift weights.
: You can say that mathematics, all of it is a phsyics
: warm-up experiment.
Hah! Like you ever do warm-ups. Maybe you pick your nose for awhile
before you type, and warm up your fingers that way. And Darla will way
whatever she wants about math, even if she says it is ever a rooty-tooty-
cauliflower. And you won't do anything about it.
: Physicists are not so
: arrogant and have a better mind, for they tell you that a physics
: experiment can be falsified.
Wrong! Physics ain't falsifiable! Guess again, screwy-dewey!
: But this is the case for
: mathematics also when you accept that a mathematics proof is merely a
: physics experiment that uses little physics equipment or apparatuses,
: usually only pen and paper.
What is your DEAL with the pen-and-paper dog-and-pony show? Look, I've
got lots of pens, in lots of wonderful colors, and I've got lots of
paper, and I've got lots of paper that I've drawn pretty picktures on,
and I've NEVER DRAWN AN ATOM! They're too tiny to draw! And why draw
them, when they're already on the paper in the first place! Like, DUH!
: My advice to you is to open your mind. Recognize that there are
: people in the world who are thousands of times smarter than you and
: that when you read my posts, don't jump the gun and think that you are
: correct and I am wrong.
No way! Thousands of times? Darla's pretty smart, ya know, and I'll bet
that she wouldn't let you get anywhere near enough to put a ruler up to
her head. She'd karate-chop you and your weak Shaolin-style into little
bits. And what if Darla likes to keep her brain closed? It's pretty
cold out there, and a brain can get awfully chilly. Your problem is that
you've been opening your mind up too often, and you've gotten something
nasty in it, like some pigeon droppings, or something. I'll bet that
your brain is foul, fetid, and rank.
I'll bet that you stink, too. Go take a bath.
--
[1m[5m
$$$ 666 $$$ 666 $$$ 666 $$$ 666 $$$ 666 $$$ 666 $$$ 666 $$$ 666 $$$ 666
hetherwi@math.wisc.edu
$$$ 666 $$$ 666 $$$ 666 $$$ 666 $$$ 666 $$$ 666 $$$ 666 $$$ 666 $$$ 666
[0m[0m
Subject: Vietmath War: boot camp ...001 on p-adics
From: Archimedes.Plutonium@dartmouth.edu (Archimedes Plutonium)
Date: 13 Nov 1996 20:42:44 GMT
In article <327FD551.4A31@postoffice.worldnet.att.net>
kenneth paul collins writes:
> Please, what are "p-adics"?
In article
Dan Razvan Ghica writes:
> It would be interesting if Archimedes Plutonium would steer his postings
> away from anti-mathematical-establishment conspiration-theory-esque
> rantings and tell us more about these mysterious p-adics, their fine
> properties and their potential impact on life from mathematics and physics
> to, say, accounting.
In article
Le Compte de Beaudrap writes:
> Now why didn't I think of this? Arch, would it be possible to
> please talk more about p-adics and less about how they will cause the
> collapse of mathematics? Serious request, here: I don't mean to be snide
> or sarcastic. Tell us about them.
I do not have time for another p-adic dialogue now. My mind has to
stay concentrated on present ongoing agenda. However, I can repost my
entire first dialogue on p-adics. As I so often stated, the math
literature is a failure in the teaching of what p-adics are. There
should be a Schaum's type of basic outline of what they are so that
even a good High School student can learn them. The reason for this is
because noone ever realized the importance of Naturals = p-adics =
Infinite Integers. Until I came along in 1993, all math people thought
that p-adics were a mere exotica, an extension exotica of integers,
failing to realize and grasp that p-adics were the Naturals all along.
MAY 1993
-------------------------------------------------------------
On 3May I argued with a Princeton U. Prof. J. H. Conway in the math
lounge around 1545 before he was going to give his lecture. Argue over
my proof of the countable Reals.
On 4May I had the listing and was going to return to the Math lounge
at 15:30 hour and show Prof. Conway. My listing though will have a new
math concept, in fact, new numbers which I call infinite integers. I
was sure that he would argue against them. What are the chances of
something new being accepted immediately? It took a long time for the
community of math majors to accept CantorÕs fake proof that the Reals
are uncountable.
------------------------------------------------------------
PUBLISHED IN THE DARTMOUTH 11MAY1993
Replying to Prof. J.H. Conway who argued against my proof published in
The Dartmouth 5Apr0053. Saying that I could not countably list the
Reals in the closed interval [.1,1], nor tell what Real in that
interval is matched with say the positive integer 500 or 501.
Cantor's false proof for uncountable Reals is this:
where the digits b1 then c2 then d3 and so on endlessly are changed,
allegedly purporting to materialize a new Real not accounted for in the
original list. Thus one of the steps of the proof argument is a logical
contradiction-- both A and not A, specifically, an end to the
endlessness, yielding Cantor's false conclusion that the Reals in
[.1,1] are uncountable.
This is my countable listing of the Reals in [.1,1] as follows:
1 «1
10 «.10
110 «.110
120 «.120
. .
. .
50 «.50
. .
. .
The matching of any Real in [.1,1] is the positive integer at which
the repeating of zeros starts. An underlined zero means endless
repetition of zeros. So I do not even need to use 500 I have plenty of
positive integers, nor do I need 2,3,4,5,6,7,8, and 9. Then 501 matches
with .5010 . What do I match .3 or (pi-3) which is .14159. . . in my
list. Again I drop the decimal point and this is new in mathematics. I
match .3 with the infinite positive integer 333. And for the irrational
number, the truncated pi of .14159. . . is matched with the infinite
positive integer 14159. . . . Applying the same scheme for truncated e
of (e-2).
Infinite integers are new in mathematics, just as irrational numbers
were new when the Pythagoreans first discovered them. And they took a
very long time to get used to. Operations of add, subtract, multiply
and divide are easily enough worked-out. Multiplying 22 by the finite
integer 4 yields 88 . Adding, 6666 + 3333 = 9999 .
Thus Cantor's alleged proof using Cantor diagonalization disappears,
for in the instant someone claims to manufacture a new Real, then it is
uniquely matched by its infinite positive integer. My matching above is
a mixture of both finite and infinite positive integers but I could
just as well use only infinite positive integers in my matchings.
Whenever a math professor balks about infinite positive integers, turn
the onus around, and ask him to immediately show you an aleph94 set.
Oops! What? He cannot show you that. Why of course not for alephs are
math fictions, funnier than science fiction because math fictions have
no partial truth value. He can never give you a clear picture of the
transfinite number aleph94. Compare aleph94 with the picture of the
infinite integer 9494 or any other infinite integer. Mathmunchkin
professors would rather stare through the looking glass at Alice in
Wonderland than to embarrassingly admit that Cantor's proof was a fake
and that the Continuum Hypothesis (CH) was a complete chimera. So it is
not surprizing that many of the Fields Prizes were mistakes-- Cohen on
CH; Smale and Freedman (see my proof of the PoincarŽ Conjecture, The D
18Nov0051). Mistakes just as in the Nobel Physics Prize mistakes--1)
Glashow Weinberg Salam, since radioactivity is a quantum dual force to
electromagnetism; 2) Chandrasekhar, since gravitational collapse to the
size of the order of the Compton wavelength is a violation of the
uncertainty principle; 3) Bardeen Cooper Schrieffer in BCS
superconductivity, never before in the history of physics has so little
of an explanation been proffered and such a large prize given. BCS
traders did a one-upsmanship on the bead traders for Manhattan. Why so
many math prize mistakes? Because it is such a "small clubhouse
communityÓ, and worst yet it has no experimental evidence like in
physics to fall back on.
Notice that in the last two years the Nobel Physics Prizes were
awarded in experimental physics. The reason is that the committee is
well aware of the Plutonium Atom Totality-- PU theory. And they are
very nervous. Cautiously, the committee is steering on the safe side by
awarding only experimental physics.
Infinite integers is for the future for I well realize that in this
present year 0053, the math community is retarded. The year 0000 is the
year of the nucleosynthesis and discovery of our Maker, a plutonium
atom. The old calendar is now scrapped as unscientific, as unscientific
as the measurement of length by the foot of some English King.
-------------------------------------------------------------
Newsgroups: sci.math
From: Ludwig.Plutonium@dartmouth.edu (Ludwig Plutonium)
Subject: Re: Cantor Corrected, A proof that the Reals are Countable
Message-ID:
Organization: Dartmouth College, Hanover, NH
References:
Date: Mon, 16 Aug 1993 23:30:25 GMT
Lines: 23
Infinite integers--that is the answer to uniquely matching
every Real in the interval (.1,1). Just drop the decimal point on the
Real in that interval you are looking at and that is an infinite
integer. There, all the Reals in that interval are matched uniquely by
an infinite integer. The alternative is to write Cantor's diagonal and
hope and pray that no student raises his/her hand and says "But in
order to manufacture that "supposed new Real " not in the original list
you had to STOP the endlessness of the positive finite integers. You
had to end endlessness which is a contradiction scooting unto a false
conclusion that the Reals are nondenumerable."
Will present day teachers stay happy for long with the situation that
only in Cantor's proof is it acceptable to have a contradiction within
the body of the proof. But any other math proof a contradiction is
verboten. Did anyone of the quarrelsome sect to my original posting ask
themselves that perhaps they had best take another look at Cantor's
proof. That the proof may have cracks in it after all? Is the notion of
various different types of infinity intuitive? Not to me, for it just
means never ending. How can there be two different types of never
ending? What is the opposite two types of nothing? Ending endlessness
in the body of a proof is a contradiction. Cantor diagonal is great on
any finite set because it naturally stops and so there is no self
contradiction but creating a new number by halting the endless is a
logical contradiction.
-------------------------------------------------------------
Newsgroups: sci.math
Subject: Re: Cantor Corrected, A proof that the Reals are
Message-ID: <1993Aug20.014006.27459@husc14.harvard.edu>
From: kubo@germain.harvard.edu (Tal Kubo)
Date: 20 Aug 93 01:40:05 EDT
References:
<25166s$92m@paperboy.osf.org>
Organization: Dept. of Math, Harvard Univ.
Lines: 30
In article
Ludwig.Plutonium@dartmouth.edu (Ludwig Plutonium) writes:
>In article <25166s$92m@paperboy.osf.org> karl@dme3.osf.org (Karl >Heuer) writes:
>
>> These are well-defined. It should be obvious how to add and
>> subtract and multiply them; division is a little trickier.
>
>Karl I please need your help, you have shown the way. Please tell me >how to deal with division? It escapes me.
(1) Unless you add a "decimal point" to your system (but so that any
number has only a finite number of digits to the right of the
point), you can't divide by every "infinite integer". For
example,
you can't divide by 10. Even if you add the decimal point there
are some complications.
(2) The inverse of (1-x), is (formally) the infinite sum 1 + x + x^2
+
x^3 + . . . Try this with x=10 to see how to get 1/9 and -1/9.
Then try to generalize from there.
(3) The number system you are (re)inventing is called the "10-adic
integers". The version with decimal point, where you can also
divide by any nonzero number, is called "Q_2 x Q_5".
-------------------------------------------------------------
Newsgroups: sci.math
From: Ludwig.Plutonium@dartmouth.edu (Ludwig Plutonium)
Subject: Re: 1 IS THE ONLY ODD PERFECT NUMBER PROOF
Message-ID:
Organization: Dartmouth College, Hanover, NH
References:
<2515i0$91c@paperboy.osf.org>
Date: Fri, 20 Aug 1993 03:46:21 GMT
Lines: 7
Dear Karl,
You showed above how to make the ordinary finite integers a
special case of infinite integers (Re: Cantor Corrected). I do not know
if you review old files so I ask here. You mentioned in there "division
is a little trickier". Please Karl, I still do not see how to get
division. Please help. Thanks
Subject: Vietmath War: ...002 bootcamp for p-adics
From: Archimedes.Plutonium@dartmouth.edu (Archimedes Plutonium)
Date: 13 Nov 1996 20:58:42 GMT
Newsgroups: sci.math
From: Ludwig.Plutonium@dartmouth.edu (Ludwig Plutonium)
Subject: Re: FermatÕs Last Theorem
Message-ID:
Organization: Dartmouth College, Hanover, NH
References: <2728f8$51j@news.u.washington.edu>
<278vgj$pi2@paperboy.osf.org>
Date: Fri, 17 Sep 1993 03:19:22 GMT
Lines: 44
In article
Ludwig.Plutonium@dartmouth.edu (Ludwig Plutonium)
>In article <278vgj$pi2@paperboy.osf.org> karl@dme3.osf.org (Karl
>Heuer) writes:
>
>>Ludwig.Plutonium@dartmouth.edu (Ludwig Plutonium) writes:
>>>The eventual arithmetic proof of FLT, I am confident, will come
>>>from the counting numbers; P-triples are possible only in exp2
>>>because 2+2=2x2=4.
>>
>>I have my doubts as to the connection between that equation and
>>FLT; however, you may be interested to know that other solutions
>>are possible if you allow those left-infinite decimal strings that
>>we discussed earlier. When k=4, there is a unique nonzero solution
>>to N+N+N+N = N*N*N*N = M. Here is the answer, worked out to 60
>>decimal places. You can check it by doing the arithmetic yourself,
>>right to left.
>>
>> N = . . .8217568575974462578891103859665245689398767183
>> 82655349981184
>> M = . . .2870274303897850315564415438660982757595068735
>> 30621399924736
>>
>>Karl Heuer karl@osf.org
>
> Karl Heuer double bless you to the infinite Fields of Elysium. I >would not mind if you discovered the worldÕs first valid proof of >FLT, instead of me.
> Karl can you do the same thing for exp3 and exp5, i.e., a unique >solution?
Karl I think the proof would then go like this. Take any exp
greater than 2, then when there are rational solutions to FLT those are
turned into infinite integers by just deleting the decimal point. Near
the end of the proof would be something that only with finite integers
is a Ptriple possible because only 2+2=2x2=4.
Then again I could be all wrong and there in fact exists a
counterexample to FLT provided that one considers infinite integers are
no different from finite integers. That is, finite integers are
infinite integers with just infinite repetition of zeroes to the left.
WOULD THAT NOT BE THE SUPREME IRONY SO FAR IN THE HISTORY OF MATH. That
there is a counterexample to FLT. The whole world will laugh
hysterically if Wiles gets approval and Ludwig Plutonium comes up with
the counterexample. Which choice would you pick--- a 1000 page math
community accepted (fake) proof, or a counterexample? So far my
confidence in the math community is that they would prefer the 1000
page ordeal.
-------------------------------------------------------------
Newsgroups: sci.math
From: Ludwig.Plutonium@dartmouth.edu (Ludwig Plutonium)
Subject: Re: FermatÕs Last Theorem
Message-ID:
Organization: Dartmouth College, Hanover, NH
References: <2728f8$51j@news.u.washington.edu>
<278vgj$pi2@paperboy.osf.org>
Date: Fri, 17 Sep 1993 03:44:56 GMT
Lines: 9
In article <278vgj$pi2@paperboy.osf.org> karl@dme3.osf.org (Karl Heuer)
writes:
>
> N = . . .8217568575974462578891103859665245689398767183
> 82655349981184
> M = . . .2870274303897850315564415438660982757595068735
> 30621399924736
LET US FIND A CROP OF COUNTEREXAMPLES TO FLT.
Ha ha ha ha ha ha ha ha ha ha ha ha ha ha ha ha ha ha ha ha ha ha ha!
-------------------------------------------------------------
EMAIL
From: ÒTerry TaoÓ
Date: Sat, 18 Sep 93 09:55:36 EDT
To: Ludwig.Plutonium@Dartmouth.EDU
Subject: Re: FermatÕs Last Theorem
Newsgroups: sci.math
In-Reply-To:
References: <2728f8$51j@news.u.washington.edu>
<278vgj$pi2@paperboy.osf.org>
Organization: Princeton University
Cc:
In article you write:
>In article
>Ludwig.Plutonium@dartmouth.edu (Ludwig Plutonium)
>
>>In article <278vgj$pi2@paperboy.osf.org> karl@dme3.osf.org (Karl
>>Heuer) writes:
>>
>>>Ludwig.Plutonium@dartmouth.edu (Ludwig Plutonium) writes:
>>>>The eventual arithmetic proof of FLT, I am confident, will come
>>>>from the counting numbers; P-triples are possible only in exp2
>>>>because 2+2=2x2=4.
>>>
>>>I have my doubts as to the connection between that equation and
>>>FLT; however, you may be interested to know that other solutions
>>>are possible if you allow those left-infinite decimal strings that
>>>we discussed earlier. When k=4, there is a unique nonzero solution
>>>to N+N+N+N = N*N*N*N = M. Here is the answer, worked out to 60
>>>decimal places. You can check it by doing the arithmetic yourself,
>>>right to left.
>>>
>>> N = . . .8217568575974462578891103859665245689398767183
>>> 82655349981184
>>> M = . . .2870274303897850315564415438660982757595068735
>>> 30621399924736
>>>
>>>Karl Heuer karl@osf.org
>>
>> Karl Heuer double bless you to the infinite Fields of Elysium. I
>>would not mind if you discovered the worldÕs first valid proof of
>>FLT, instead of me.
>> Karl can you do the same thing for exp3 and exp5, i.e., a unique
>>solution?
No.
Theorem. The equation N+N+N=N*N*N has no solution in 10-adics, apart
from N=0.
Proof: consider the powers of 2 and 5 in N. Suppose 2 divides N a times
and 5 divides N b times. The lhs of the above equation has 2^a 5^b as
its factors of 2 and 5 (which are by the way the only primes in
10-adics), and the rhs has 2^3a 5^3b as its factors, hence a and b must
be 0.
But then, if neither 2 or 5 divides N, then N must be invertible,
unless N=0. Thus, dividing by N, we get N*N = 3. But comparing the
final digits of both sides, we see that this is impossible.
Similarly: The equation N+N+N+N+N=N*N*N*N*N has no solution in
10-adics, apart from N=0.
Proof. Suppose 2^a5^b are the prime factors of N, again. Then the lhs
has prime factors of 2^a 5^(b+1) and the rhs has prime factors of 2^5a
5^5b. But these can never match, hence there is no solution (unless
N=0; 0 is the only number that has non-unique prime factorization).
The fact that N+N+N=N*N*N has no solutions in 10-adics, whereas there
ARE solutions of FLT in 10-adics for n=3 (see for example the post by
William Schneeberger), shows that there is no proof that ÒFLT is true
for n=3 => N+N+N=N*N*N for some non-zero NÓ unless you use a property
of the integers that the 10-adic integers do not have.
>
> Karl I think the proof would then go like this. Take any exp
>greater than 2, then when there are rational solutions to FLT those
>are turned into infinite integers by just deleting the decimal point.
An important point here: the operation of turning rational numbers into
infinite integers by deleting the decimal point does NOT preserve
addition or multiplication. For example, in rationals
.33333... x .33333.... = .11111....
whereas
....33333 x ....33333 = .....88889
and
.5555.... + .4444... = 1
whereas
....5555 + ....4444 = ....9999
Thus, a rational solution of FLT does not automatically lead to a
10-adic solution of FLT.
>Near the end of the proof would be something that only with finite
>integers is a Ptriple possible because only 2+2=2x2=4.
I would very much like to see a proof of this statement: if you can
prove this, then you have proved FLT. Then again, see an above point
that you would need to use a property of the integers that is not
shared by the 10-adic integers.
> Then again I could be all wrong and there in fact exists a
>counterexample to FLT provided that one considers infinite integers
>are no different from finite integers.
What you mean here is that there exists a counterexample to FLT in
infinite integers. It is not quite correct to say that Òinfinite
integers are no different from finite integersÓ. Every finite integer
is a 10-adic integer, but not conversely. What is true is that
multiplication and addition are the same operation for both of them.
However, finite integers have several properties that 10-adic integers
do not have, for example, they are all finite. Another is that
induction works for finite integers, but not for 10-adic integers.
(otherwise, you could prove that all 10-adic integers were finite by
induction).
> That is, finite integers are infinite integers with just infinite
>repetition of zeroes to the left. WOULD THAT NOT BE THE SUPREME
>IRONY SO FAR IN THE HISTORY OF MATH. That there is a
>counterexample to FLT.
The commonly accepted wording of FLT ends Ò... where a, b, c, n are
(finite) integersÓ (with the finite added for emphasis). If you remove
this last phrase, then the FLT that most mathematicians think of would
then have to be called ÒFLT for integersÓ. It is true that FLT is false
for p-adics, matrices, quaternions, and a lot of other number systems.
In this sense, there are counter examples to the general FLT. But there
is no counter example to FLT (integers): this was proved by Wiles.
> The whole world will laugh hysterically if Wiles gets approval
>and Ludwig Plutonium comes up with the counterexample. Which
>choice would you pick--- a 1000 page math community accepted
>(fake) proof, or a counterexample? So far my confidence in the math
>community is that they would prefer the 1000 page ordeal.
There seems to be a point you keep missing. If you change the
definitions of terms (like integer, real, etc), then theorems change as
well. Thus,
ÒFLT for normal integersÓ (Wiles)
is a different theorem than
ÒFLT is not true for 10-adic integersÓ (proved by many people)
and both results (admittedly one is very long, the other very short),
are good mathematics and knowing one does not automatically get you the
other result. So there is no real irony, except that theorems that hold
for one number system need not hold for all number systems.
Of course, you may dispute that the commonly accepted definition of
ÒintegerÓ SHOULD be the commonly accepted definition. But even if you
replace the concept of integer, the ÒoldÓ concept of integer is still a
valid one, so you canÕt just blithely say (for example) Òwell, if I
redefine integers to be 10-adic, so the reals are now equal cardinality
to the integers, then there is no infinite set with smaller cardinality
than the reals anymoreÓ, because the ÒoldÓ notion of integer still
exists.
Terry
-------------------------------------------------------------
Newsgroups: sci.math
From: Ludwig.Plutonium@dartmouth.edu (Ludwig Plutonium)
Subject: Re: Fermat's Last Theorem
Message-ID:
Organization: Dartmouth College, Hanover, NH
References:
<278vgj$pi2@paperboy.osf.org>
<27glo6$elj@paperboy.osf.org>
Date: Mon, 20 Sep 1993 15:39:46 GMT
Lines: 15
In article <27glo6$elj@paperboy.osf.org> karl@dme3.osf.org (Karl Heuer)
writes:
>In article >Ludwig.Plutonium@dartmouth.edu (Ludwig Plutonium) writes:
>>does this above monster 4N=N^4 repeat in a block like Rational >>numbers repeat
>
>No, it doesn't.
Karl is this new number which you discovered (if you do not have a
name for it as yet, I suggest HeuerPu Numbers, but that is up to you)
analytic irrational or transcendental? Given that concepts of
transcendental can be translated to P-adic.
Also, please tell me if there is a mirror reflection in the Reals of
HeuerPu Numbers. Is there a Real number between 0 and 1 which has
HeuerPu properties?
-------------------------------------------------------------
EMAIL
Date: Tue, 21 Sep 93 00:01:54 EDT
From: ÒKin ChungÓ
To: Ludwig.Plutonium@Dartmouth.EDU
Subject: INFINITE INTEGERS
In-Reply-To:
Organization: Princeton University
Cc:
Before you embrace the so-called Òinfinite integersÓ too closely,
consider this straightforward sum:
....9999999999999999999999999999999999999999999999999
+....0000000000000000000000000000000000000000000000001
___________________________________________
....000000000000000000000000000000000000000000000000
Using your identification of the (finite) integers with a subset of the
infinite integers, this shows that (-1) = ...9999. Do you see what IÕm
trying to get at?
-------------------------------------------------------------
From: karl@dme3.osf.org (Karl Heuer)
Newsgroups: sci.math
Subject: Re: Fermat's Last Theorem
Date: 21 Sep 1993 20:59:42 GMT
Organization: Open Software Foundation
Lines: 25
Message-ID: <27npvu$blc@paperboy.osf.org>
References:
<27glo6$elj@paperboy.osf.org>
In article
Ludwig.Plutonium@dartmouth.edu (Ludwig Plutonium) writes:
>(if you do not have a name for it as yet, I suggest HeuerPu Numbers,
>but that is up to you)
I've been calling N^k=k*N the "LP equation". I don't think its
solutions need names of their own, but "LP numbers" will do for now.
> Karl is this new number which you discovered analytic irrational or transcendental? Given that concepts of transcendental can be translated to P-adic.
It's easy to prove that it's irrational, because the rationals have the
same properties in the 10-adic numbers that they do in the reals. Since
it's a zero of the polynomial x^k-k*x, it's a (non-Real) irrational
algebraic number.
>Also, please tell me if there is a mirror reflection in the Reals
The LP equation has real solutions for all k; e.g. sqrt(3) for k=3.
(As someone else already noted, these solutions will have magnitude
>1.)
There are similarities to the Reals, but it's not just a renaming. 1/3
exists as a (repeating) 10-adic integer, but it's not . . .3333; it's .
. .66667 instead. (Multiply it out: . . .66667 * 3 = . . .00001 no
matter how many places you carry it to.) Also, x^2 = 3 has a solution
in the Reals but not in the 10-adics; while x^2 = -31 has a solution in
the 10-adics but not in the Reals.
-------------------------------------------------------------
From: karl@dme3.osf.org (Karl Heuer)
Newsgroups: sci.math
Subject: Re: P-ADIC NUMBERS: RENAMED AS INFINITE INTEGERS
Date: 21 Sep 1993 21:14:12 GMT
Organization: Open Software Foundation
Lines: 12
Message-ID: <27nqr4$bpe@paperboy.osf.org>
References:
In article
Ludwig.Plutonium@dartmouth.edu (Ludwig Plutonium) writes:
> Let us rename the math subject "P-adic Numbers" to that of
>"Infinite Integers."
I'd rather keep the existing terminology. There are several consistent
models of arithmetic that include objects that look "infinite" in some
sense: the Hyperintegers/Hyperreals, the Surintegers/Surreals, the
compact number line, the Riemann sphere, the transfinite ordinals, the
transfinite cardinals, etc.
The only thing that's "infinite" about the p-adic numbers is their
representation as a digit string, and that's analogous to the infinite
number of digits in a non-terminating Real.
-------------------------------------------------------------
Newsgroups: sci.math
From: Ludwig.Plutonium@dartmouth.edu (Ludwig Plutonium)
Subject: Re: P-ADIC NUMBERS: RENAMED AS INFINITE INTEGERS
Message-ID:
Organization: Dartmouth College, Hanover, NH
References:
<27nqr4$bpe@paperboy.osf.org>
Date: Thu, 23 Sep 1993 16:34:43 GMT
Lines: 17
In article <27nqr4$bpe@paperboy.osf.org>
karl@dme3.osf.org (Karl Heuer)
>I'd rather keep the existing terminology. There are several >consistent models of arithmetic that include objects that look >"infinite" in some sense: the Hyperintegers/Hyperreals, the >Surintegers/Surreals, the compact number line, the Riemann >sphe,
the transfinite ordinals, the transfinite cardinals, etc.
>
>The only thing that's "infinite" about the p-adic numbers is their
>representation as a digit string, and that's analogous to the infinite
>number of digits in a non-terminating Real.
How about TRANSFINITE INTEGERS? Any objections?
I am trying to give a good name to these infinite strings for
another assault on CantorÕs claim that there are more than one type of
infinity.
-------------------------------------------------------------
From: "Terry Tao"
Subject: Re: Wiles proof of FLT
To: Ludwig.Plutonium@Dartmouth.EDU (Ludwig Plutonium)
Date: Sun, 26 Sep 93 17:10:49 EDT
In-Reply-To: <5509284@blitzen.Dartmouth.EDU>; from "Ludwig Plutonium"
at Sep 26, 93 5:07 pm
>
> Terry tell me if all P-adic numbers have inverses. Can you prove it
>
If P is prime, then all numbers which are not multiples of P have
inverses. (in other words, all numbers whose last digit is not 0.)
If P is not prime, then all numbers which are coprime to P have
inverses, i.e. the last digit of that number is coprime to P.
To prove it, it is sufficient to show that you can invert the last N
digits, for each N. This is a standard exercise in modular arithmetic.
Terry
p.s. I would still like to hear your comment on my proof that there
must be a counter-example to FLT. Do you think my proof is flawed?
-------------------------------------------------------------
EMAIL
From: ÒTerry TaoÓ
Date: Tue, 28 Sep 93 20:34:10 EDT
To: Ludwig.Plutonium@Dartmouth.EDU
Subject: Re: FermatÕs Last Theorem
Newsgroups: sci.math
In-Reply-To:
References: <2728f8$51j@news.u.washington.edu>
<278vgj$pi2@paperboy.osf.org>
Organization: Princeton University
Several observations.
(1). In my mind, the reason why 2 is exceptional in FLT is not because
2x2 = 2+2, but rather because 2 is even. If n is odd, then FLT can be
rewritten in the much more beautiful
u^n + v^n + w^n is never 0 unless uvw is 0 (where u,v,w are integers).
(2). P-adic counter-examples to FLT have been known for some time -
almost at the same time that they were discovered. P-adics are like
real numbers, in a sense: who's interested in a real number
counter-example to FLT?
(3). Wiles uses special properties of the finite integers that the
infinte integers do not have, one of which is that there are infinitely
many primes in the finite integers.
(4) Your statement "Wiles's proof contradicts the Fourier theorem" is
indirect non-existence - after all, that's what you said when I used
the same principle to show that FLT must be false for finite integers.
(5) FLT is true for finite integers, false for p-adic integers. Each
finite integer is a p-adic integer, but the set of finite integers is
only a SUBSET of the set of p-adic integers. They are different things,
and you have two different FLTs for two different number systems. FLT
is assumed to be over the finite integers unless otherwise specified,
so your statement that ÒAll proofs of FLT are fakeÓ is wrongly deduced.
However, you have made a true deduction in saying that no proof of FLT
can rely purely on algebraic manipulation, because of the p-adic
counter example. It must use a property that the finite integers have
but the infinite integers do not, for example
(a) induction;
(b) infinitude of primes;
(c) no zero divisors (WillÕs two numbers, a and b, multiply to 0)
etc.
Terry
-------------------------------------------------------------
EMAIL
From: ÒTerry TaoÓ
Subject: Re: Fermat's Last Theorem
To: Ludwig.Plutonium@Dartmouth.EDU (Ludwig Plutonium)
Date: Tue, 28 Sep 93 22:22:46 EDT
In-Reply-To: <5569918@blitzen.Dartmouth.EDU>; from "Ludwig Plutonium"
at Sep 28, 93 10:18 pm
>
>--- You wrote:
>However, you have made a true deduction in saying that no proof of >FLT can rely purely on algebraic manipulation, because of the p-adic >counter example. It must use a property that the finite integers >have but the infinite integers do not, for
example
>--- end of quoted material ---
>Thanks that is important I needed that.
>
>Terry tell me if there is a Real analog of that number Karl produced. >Karl says it is greater than 1. Can you pinpoint it better.
>
the cube root of 4.
Terry
-------------------------------------------------------------
EMAIL
From: ÒWilliam SchneebergerÓ
Subject: Re: your counterexample posting
To: Ludwig.Plutonium@Dartmouth.EDU (Ludwig Plutonium)
Date: Wed, 29 Sep 93 12:10:41 EDT
In-Reply-To: <5581074@blitzen.Dartmouth.EDU>; from ÒLudwig PlutoniumÓ
at Sep 29, 93 11:39 am
Sorry, I don't have a copy. But here's the deal:
We solve a == 0 (mod 5)
a == 0 (mod 25)
a == 0 (mod 125)
.
.
.
and
a == 1 (mod 2)
a == 1 (mod 4)
a == 1 (mod 8)
by the Chinese Remainder Theorem. Similarly we solve
b == 0 (mod 5)
b == 0 (mod 25)
b == 0 (mod 125)
b == 0 (mod 625)
.
.
.
and
b == 1 (mod 2)
b == 1 (mod 4)
b == 1 (mod 8)
.
.
.
Now one can prove that a*a=a, b*b=b, a*b=0, a+b=1. This leads
immediately to the fact that, for all (finite natural numbers) n,
a^n + b^n = c^n where c == 1.
There are, however, much more interesting solutions to FLT in these
numbers. The above solution may well be considered trivial as abc == 0.
For the p-adic numbers (infinite integers in a prime base p) the above
solution does not exist. But I know that there do exist solutions for n
relatively prime to p(p-1).
Will
-------------------------------------------------------------
EMAIL
From: ÒTerry TaoÓ
Subject: Re: Schneebergers post
To: Ludwig.Plutonium@Dartmouth.EDU (Ludwig Plutonium)
Date: Wed, 29 Sep 93 14:45:31 EDT
In-Reply-To: <5581425@blitzen.Dartmouth.EDU>; from "Ludwig Plutonium"
at Sep 29, 93 11:55 am
>
>Hi Terry. I lost Schneebergers post of counterexamples. Would you >have a copy? Please relay
>
I haven't got that post either, but here's how you can compute them:
The idempotents of the 10-adics are the solutions of a^2 = a. Thus
their first digit must be 6 or 5 (by considering the problem modulo 10)
- the idempotents 0 and 1 being discounted. Let us, say, consider the
one with last digit 5: they sum up to 1 anyway.
You can compute successive digits iteratively. If the next digit is a,
i.e. the last two digits are 10a+5, then the last two digits of the
square is 25, so a must be 2.
Similarly, if we let the next digit be b, so the last three digits are
100b + 25, then the last three digits of the square is 625, hence b =
6. And so on.
Terry
-------------------------------------------------------------
EMAIL
From: ÒTerry TaoÓ
Subject: Re: Schneebergers post
To: Ludwig.Plutonium@Dartmouth.EDU (Ludwig Plutonium)
Date: Wed, 29 Sep 93 15:02:53 EDT
In-Reply-To: <5581425@blitzen.Dartmouth.EDU>; from "Ludwig Plutonium"
at Sep 29, 93 11:55 am
Actually, all you need to do is take 5 and keep squaring it. The powers
of 5 will converge in the 10-adic topology to one of Will's numbers.
(recall: whereas the metric in say the reals, is |x-y| for the distance
between x and y, the metric between two p-adics x and y is 1/p^n, where
n is the highest number of times that p divides x-y.)
Terry
-------------------------------------------------------------
EMAIL
From: ÒWilliam SchneebergerÓ
Subject: Re: your counterexample posting
To: Ludwig.Plutonium@Dartmouth.EDU (Ludwig Plutonium)
Date: Wed, 29 Sep 93 15:21:43 EDT
In-Reply-To: <5581838@blitzen.Dartmouth.EDU>; from ÒLudwig PlutoniumÓ
at Sep 29, 93 12:15 pm
So, I guess, some solutions for exponent 3 are
a == 1
b == 10
c == . . .52979382777667001
a == 1
b == 20
c == . . .4437336001
a == 1
b == 30
c == . . .4919009001
In fact for any finite n, a == 1, b a multiple of 10, we can solve the
equation of FLT.
But, look, all IÕve shown here is that in the 10-adic numbers there is
a solution to the equation. I have _not_ contradicted the statement of
FLT which says that there is no solution among the usual finite
integers. This is more of a problem.
Later.
-------------------------------------------------------------
Newsgroups: sci.math
From: Ludwig.Plutonium@dartmouth.edu (Ludwig Plutonium)
Subject: Re: Wiles's proof of FLT
Message-ID:
Organization: Dartmouth College, Hanover, NH
References: <27st80$asv@clipper.clipper.ingr.com>
Date: Wed, 29 Sep 1993 16:24:55 GMT
Lines: 15
In article
Ludwig.Plutonium@dartmouth.edu (Ludwig Plutonium) writes:
>FLT was outstanding because there is no proof of FLT in the general >case. The general theorem of FLT has no proof because transfinite >integers are just as real as finite integers. All attempts at a proof >of the general equation of FLT are doomed to
failure.
PROOF OF FLT. The general form of FLT where a^n+b^n=c^n are such
that the four numbers a,b,c,n could be transfinite integers as well as
finite integers. Hence a proof in the general case is impossible. The
counterexamples in the P-adics is the proof. Anything else would have
to restrict the four numbers a,b,c,n to finite number cases and show
that in those restrictions there are no P-triples. QED