Subject: Re: Mission Impossible: Can probability=0
From: Robert E Sawyer
Date: Tue, 12 Nov 1996 22:55:18 -0800
(Again, apologies if this posting appears more than once due to server problems.)
Yes, I think you took my meaning correctly -- even though I had excluded them,
we can now include the cases p=0 and p=1 if the limits are handled with care:
I was considering an infinite sequence X_1, X_2,... of i.i.d. random variables, each
of which is 0 or 1, with fixed pr(X_i=1)=p, and I asked for the c.d.f. F(t;p) of the
random variable X = 0.X_1X_2... = sum[k=1,2,...](X_k)*2^(-k).
Of course, the cases you first mention (p=0,1,and 0.5) are quite obvious, and other
cases are, as you say, less so. However, here is something that I find interesting:
Claim: For any t and p in [0,1], F(t/2^m;p) = F(t;p)*[(1-p)]^m; m=0,1,2,...
[Write the binary expansion of t=t_1t_2... and note that
F(t/2;p)=pr(0.X_1X_2X_3... <= 0.0t_1t_2t_3...)
=pr(X_1=0)*pr(0.0X_2X_3...<=0.0t_1t_2t_3...) (independence)
=(1-p)*pr(0.X_2X_3...<=0.t_1t_2...)
=(1-p)*pr(0.X_1X_2...<=0.t_1t_2...)(identically distributed)
=(1-p)*F(t;p)
and the claim follows by iteration.]
The following c.d.f. has the property claimed for F(t;p):
G(t;p)=t^a, with a=-log2(1-p).
Indeed, F(.;p)=G(.;p) in the special cases p=0, 1, 0.5.
So, here's a question:
If, as you say, F(t;p) is not continuous in t, is there, nevertheless,
some nice connection between F(t;p) & G(t;p) for general t and p in [0,1]?
Thanks for the reference on this topic -- perhaps it will address
this question also.
Robert E Sawyer (soen@pacbell.net)
Subject: Re: Vietmath War: Wiles FLT lecture at Cambridge
From: Archimedes.Plutonium@dartmouth.edu (Archimedes Plutonium)
Date: 12 Nov 1996 22:57:50 GMT
In article
Dan Razvan Ghica writes:
> I don't really see how the way we write a number is important. If
> "...9998" and "-2" are equivalent I would naively go for the "-2" notation
> just because it lacks the confusing "..." at the left end. Just like I
> prefer "2.0" to "1.999...". But I might be wrong.
>
There is more to a number than how it is written. And I should have
not thrown in that equivalency for I opened a huge can of worms. For me
to talk about 'equality' and 'equivalency' there distinction and
perhaps there illusion would be a whole subject in itself. The Real
Numbers 2.0... and 1.999... are one and the same and are equal. There
is no difference between 2.00... and Real two and 1.999... and the
Whole Real after 1.00... This is a matter of writing a number. But
equivalency is much different because we do not say 1/2 is equal to
2/4. We know that if you have a team composed of 1 male and 1 female
and another team of 2 males and 2 females, we know those are not the
same thing.
And here is another case where physics overpowers mathematics. In
physics we can have equality for photons or the more general bosons are
indistinguishable. In fact, bosons are the only pieces of reality that
are indistinguishable and everything else is distinguishable. And so ,
in the future the mathematicians will eventually come around to basing
their definition, and their entire understanding of equality and
equivalency-- all around boson and fermion characteristics. But this
other triumph of phsyics over mathematics will wait. First of
importance is for physics to clear out the dead wood of Finite Integers
and replace them with Infinite Integers (p-adics).
> It would be interesting if Archimedes Plutonium would steer his postings
> away from anti-mathematical-establishment conspiration-theory-esque
> rantings and tell us more about these mysterious p-adics, their fine
> properties and their potential impact on life from mathematics and physics
> to, say, accounting.
>
To you and most everyone reading my Vietmath posts will look at them
as anti math establishment with touches of hollering of conspiracy. I
have never admired conspiracy theories.
To the world 50 years from now, they will see that I did what I had
to do. And as they read my posts they will be on my side, even 110%
percent. History is kind to those who could see the truth 50 years in
advance, and history is very unkind to those who thwarted and ignored.
Remember those two English mathematicians that ignored Ramanujan. And
Hardy would have been a mere footnote if not for Ramanujan. But those
two darkhorses are now written into the black pages of history.
Every prominent mathematician out there now who ignores me will be
written off and into the dark pages of history. Andy Wiles, Gerd
Faltings, Paul Erdos will be written into the comic book history of
mathematics, simply because they ignored me.
> I need more background before I start fighting the VietMath war.
>
I do not have time for a dialogue concerning p-adics. I have often
posted in the past that a Schaum's type of outline for elementary
p-adics should be written. Some workbook that even a good High School
student can operate on p-adics. When the world recognizes that physics
is written in p-adics and not the fictional Finite Integers then
virtually all mathematics textbooks become instantly obsolete. And book
publishers will be forced to write elementary p-adics books and
outlines.
When p-adics replaces finite integers there will have to be a meeting
all over the world in education to decide what year to introduce
p-adics to math majors. Everyone who is not majoring in physics or
mathematics can use the false integers of finite because they never
need to worry about any integer that does not repeat in zeros leftward.
Just like anyone not wanting to major in physics can get by amiably
with Newtonian Mechanics.
> Regards,
> DRG
>
Sorry, I do not have the time for a p-adic dialogue. About the best I
can do is to repost my own personal dialogue on p-adics that occurred
on the Net in 1993-1994. And come to think of it, I ought to keep that
dialogue in my website and to the questions of "let's have a p-adic
dialogue" I can refer the reader to a specific web page.
The mathematics literature even up to this date, is horribly lacking
in any elementary discussions of p-adics, what they are, how to
multiply and divide with them. There strange characteristics. Why this
lack? The answer is that noone but me ever thought they were anything
more than a extension. I am the first to realize that they are the
Naturals themselves, and that the Finite Integers were a field of
ghosts, or angels that fit on the end of a needle.
> --
> ghica@qucis.queensu.ca **** http://www.qucis.queensu.ca/home/ghica/info.html
> Many vast and imposing philosophies are based on stupid and trivial confusions.
> Bertrand Russell
Subject: $$$$$$$$$$$$$$$$$$$$$$$$$$$$$$$$$
From: dave
Date: Wed, 13 Nov 1996 02:18:17 -0600
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************************************************************************
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******************************************************************
******************************************************************
THE NAMES LIST THE NAMES LIST THE NAME LIST
******************************************************************
* HONESTY IS WHAT MAKES THIS PROGRAM SUCCESSFUL!!!
*
*
*
*
* #1 C. PRUETT
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ANOKA MN. 55303-
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OWATONNA MN. 55060
#5 DONNA GLENN
308 3RD AVE EAST
JEROME, ID 83338
***********************************************************************
This works, I did it and have already received $420.00 in the past week.
************************************************************************
Subject: Re: insights into the quantum Hall effect; SCIENCE 25OCT96; p-adics
From: Archimedes.Plutonium@dartmouth.edu (Archimedes Plutonium)
Date: 13 Nov 1996 01:44:37 GMT
In article Le Compte de
Beaudrap writes:
>
> As soon as chemistry stopped being alchemy, it was a branch of
>physics. It happened in the late 19th, not the early 20th, century. To
>quote Rutherford: "All science is either physics or stamp collecting."
>That was from long before the full glory of Quantum Physics.
>
I'll buy that. I think most chemists innately know that they are a
specialized area of physics.
>
> As well, how can physics ever subsume math!? That's impossible!
>While findings in physics may force math to change, it is the laws of
>physics that are expressed in math, NOT the laws of math expressed in
>physics. I defy you to, using Maxwell's equations, prove that 1+1=2,
>without depending on the proof asked for to accomplish it.
>
Nay, your above is your accepted brainwash. Look, try to imagine a
world in which it has no indivisible parts-- no atoms. This is very
difficult and shows the degree of assumptions people carry with them.
You see, the only reason we have numbers in the first place is because
atoms are numerous.
To show your above beliefs are wrong, I need not prove via Maxwell
Equations that 1+1 = 2. All I need to show you and the myriad others is
to consider this.
Consider humans inside of the 5f6 establishing a mathematics and they
come to the moment in history when they seek that special number that
relates how many diameters make a circle. We know that special number
to be 3.14.... Could that number be different to another advanced
lifeform somewhere else in the universe? The answer is yes. The answer
is that life, intelligent life can have different pi depending on where
that advanced life is located.
You see, Niel, to your education and brainwashing you think that pi
is an absolute.
But if you consider that pi and e come from the physical world itself
and that we discover pi as 3.14... in this corner of the universe but
that pi and e can change and have been different in the past and will
be different in the future.
You see, 5f6 of 231 plutonium has in the collapsed waveform
(collapsed wavefunction reverts to rational numbers and uncollapsed are
transcendental numbers) . But the diameter to the circumference of 5f6
of plutonium is 22 subshells divided by 7 shells. The girth, the
circumference of plutonium is 22 subshells inside of a diameter a 7
shells.
The reason all math people find that the ratio of circumference to
diameter is a number in rational form of 22/7 and for e , 19/7 (19
occupied* subshells in 7 shells) is because the Maker of everything has
a belt, a girth of 22, and occupied 19 subshells in 7 shells.
Every mathematician before me has never answered why 3.14... (whether
rational or transcendental form) has ever answered why these two
numbers. Why not a whole 3 and a whole 2. The answer could never be
given by math people but the answer has to be given by the "experience
of the whole world". Physics has to answer why pi is 3.14... and not 3
and why e is 2.71... and not 2 or 2.50...
Once physics has answered that, then it implies that in the future
when the universe is a different atom totality such as a element 150,
then the pi and e for those advanced lifeforms inside that element 150
outer electron space, their pi and e will be different from our pi and
e inside the 5f6 of plutonium.
Physics is tops, is pinnacle and all other subjects are dressing for
physics.
> If physics predicts a mathematical property, THEN has physics
>subsumed math. You state that physics CONTRADICTS math, or shows that
>math is insufficient; that means that the laws of mathematics do not form
>a proper base as defined.
>
You got that partially correct. My attack on mathematics goes like
this.
If a branch of physics or even a tiny spot of physics finds p-adics
essential. Essential and where the Finite Integers are inadequate. What
that discovery means is that Finite Integers as counting numbers were
as fake, as a mere crude approximation of what the genuine and true
integers were. This usurpment is similar to the usurping of Newtonian
Mechanics by Quantum Mechanics.
Thus my attack on mathematics is merely a search for physics , some
spot in physics where p-adics are essential and where Finite Integers
just fail to describe that physics. My guess is that the Quantum Hall
Effect numbers are p-adic numbers and that they look strange and
bizarre because they are seen as rational numbers and Finite Integers.
But if they are seen as just 7-adics and that they are 1,2,3,4,.... in
7-adics but oddball numbers otherwise. Well, physics subsumes
mathematics, swallows it forevermore in that one experiment.
>
>
> Excuse me, but are you not also being a mathematician in
>contributing to mathematics? (Are you not also acting like a High Priest
>impersonator by writing this article? "The end of the finite integers is
>a'comin, and all of the unbeleivin' mathematicians of the world will be
>thrown into the fires of hell!")
Yes I am a mathematician when it is proved that physics is written
in p-adics and not Finite Integers. I have to come down hard on math
people to let them know. It was not by coincidence that I used the
Vietnam war to run a harangue on the math community. Consider: how far
would the Vietnam war protestors have gotten if they wrote to the
president Dear LBJ, please stop the Vietnam war. Those protesters did
the best thing possible to turn the attitude of that war. I have 2
proofs of the Riemann Hypothesis. If my name was Andy Wiles and had
control of Annals of Mathematics the way Andy has control of that
magazine, then the world would have had 2 accepted proofs of the
Riemann Hypothesis in 1993.
I can no longer ask "please Mr. Edwards will you look at my 2 proofs
of the Riemann Hypothesis". Instead I have to call out these buffoons
and wait for my day in the sun. When my day comes then I will change
the crooked and self-serving way that mathematics is run.
>
> As well, where does the impression of mathematicians feeling
>superior to scientists arise? I never heard of this, and many
>mathematicians were also physicists. Were you scared by a
>mathematician in your childhood?
>
It is obvious, just look at all the replies to my saying that
mathematics is a subdepartment of physics. Only I have supported this
claim and all the other posts have opposed this claim. Even you Niel
are opposed to this claim. And the reason you are opposed, I can only
guess is that everyone has read in this arrogant books that math is
great and tops. But now in a newer day where there is an Atom Totality
theory, that older claim of math is tops really has not much support.
> As an aside, I take opposition to your calling me a birdbrain,
>despite the fact that I haven't breathed a word against p-adics
>themselves yet. And until I have sufficient reason, I won't.
>
>
I do that as a price that the lethargic math community will pay. The
day when p-adics are found essential in physics and that Naturals =
p-adics is confirmed then the math people who had responsibility to
consider Naturals = p-adics but who ignored it, heckled it, jeered it.
Well, then they pay the price for their obtuseness and their ignoring
it. I want accountability in mathematics and the sciences. In the old
days we were not as open nor had free access to the press and world as
we do with the Internet. And so accountability now plays a major role
in science and math.
If I am found wrong and that the p-adics are not the Naturals and
that no place in physics are p-adics essential, then I pay the price
and eat crow and be historically blacklisted or made a clown of. But I
believe I am correct and if it takes calling Gerd Faltings a worthless
math birdbrain that he may go into action and consider that equation of
Naturals = INfinite Integers, and that he will go down into infamy in
math history if I am found correct. Then it was good that I put a
bunsen burner under his stupid and lazy ass.
>
> Maybe. As Quantum Physics has "classical" and "renormalised"
>versions of theories, so may mathematics under p-adics. (What does
>"p-adic" stand for, anyway? Just curious.)
>
I have often stated that mathematics has rarely had any revolutions.
About the only real revolution was the introduction of nonEuclidean
geometries. But mathematics is ripe for a real, apple cart upsetting
revolution. A revolution that will make obsolete almost all the math
textbooks of present. Such a revolution would be Naturals = p-adics =
Infinite INtegers. And I have likened that revolution to the Quantum
physics revolution over the old Newtonian Mechanics. I have often
implied that Naturals = Finite Integers is Newtonian Mechanics and that
Naturals = Infinite Integers is the Quantum Mechanics of mathematics.
>
> Firstly, I agree that physics EXPERIMENTS have more basis in
>reality than math: math is a formal system which seems to work, and
>physics experiments are measurements of reality itself. However,
>THEORETICAL physics depends on math intimately. Physics theory without
>math boils down to: "light is very very very very fast."
>
All theoretical phsyics is hogwash unless it has experiments behind
it. And thanks for you above for the bells are ringing. Mathematics =
Theoretical Physics which has no experimental evidence. Pure
theoretical physics is phsyics experiments that use only pen and paper.
> Secondly, how did you "derive" (for lack of a better word)
>p-adics? Are p-adics a consequence of observation, as the existance of
>the neucleus of an atom is? Or are p-adics the only way math and physics
>able to coexist? If the latter, I submit that you have found a math that
>is better for a basis of physics. P-adics are a part of physics (as
>opposed to math) IF AND ONLY IF p-adics exist by the observations of
>physics. Have you observed a 2 today? Not two objects, not ink in the
>symbolic representation of "2", but an actual 2? No such thing exists,
>one cannot "observe" a number, nor can one observe a class of numbers.
>Thusly, p-adics are a part of MATH, NOT PHYSICS.
>
If this world had no atoms , but something else, something continuous
perhaps then mathematics created in such a world would be numberless
and be based on whatever that stuff of that universe was.
I did not found p-adics, Kurt Hensel did that at the turn of the 20th
century. I independantly discovered Infinite Integers and then later
found out that p-adics cover the Infinite Integers. This often happens
in science or math. That you work on something and think you have
discovered something totally new and find out that someone else worked
it out 100 years earlier than you.
>
>
> Ah, so then you did not observe a p-adic, you merely concluded
>that to use a p-adic instead of a finite integer solved your problems.
>Your problems of reconciliation of THEORETICAL PHYSICS with EXPERIMENTAL
>PHYSICS, not PHYSICS with MATH. By improving math, you makephysics
>consistent. If p-adics are indeed an improvement, I applaud your efforts.
>However, in trying to convince (convert?) others to see things your way,
>you have begun to sound more like a fanatical Nazi than a rational
>philosopher of any type.
>
> P-adics are math. New math, math brought about due to problems in
>physics, but math nonetheless. By insulting math, you insult yourself.
>Whether you are aware of it or not, you are a mathematician, and are
>trying to bring about a mathematical, and not a physical, revolution.
>Physics will not envelop math, as you envision: math will not be whipped,
>kiss physics' feet, or be put into concentration camps. Theoretical
>physics will still be the middle man between experimental physics and
>math, trying to predict the former by use of the latter. It will merely
>be the first time that an inadequacy in physics will necessitate a change
>in math, is all, just as inadequacies have necessitated better
>experimental procedures all these centuries.
>
> I put it to you that you are either a physicist who has been
>either abused, teased, or put down by mathematical peers, and that you
>are trying to insult them by saying that physics is infinitely superior
>to math. In that, you are gravely mistaken. All quests for truth are
>equally valid, and while some may be based on others (ie, just as PHYSICS
>is based on MATH and observation), all searches for truth are noble, and
>light up our world with their insights.
>
No, I have my work and ideas before the eyes of the world. If any of
my theories are found correct, such as the Atom Totality, then all of
those that ignored or denied or the many that persecuted me will pay
their price.
The Net has changed the playing field of science in publishing. No
longer can a professor from Princeton who has his hand on the journals
gets published. If Wiles is awarded the Wolfskehl prize for FLT and 10
or 50 years later my Naturals = P-adics is finally admitted as true and
that Wiles FLT was another scam just as Kempe's scam of the 4 - Color
Mapping. Well, it was all on record and I ask that Wiles and the
Goettingen Academy of Sciences go down in history , in infamy , as the
darkhorse persecutors and con-artists and buffoons that they were.
The way we publish science and math must change. The old clubhouse,
inner circle are held accountable if they ignore a genius of the
subject.
> This has been my humble opinion, amplified by way of reaction to
>extreme comments about math. (Newton's 3rd law: For every action, there
>is an equal but opposite reaction...a qualitative law of physics, which
>needs math to be of any concrete use.) I neither oppose nor promote
>p-adics, but I do oppose the way that the promoter(s) of p-adics seem to
>go to great lengths put math down, especially with shock tactics like
>"Physics Envelops Math" and "Math forced to grub, grub, grub". Let
>us discuss things, and think things out, like reasoning beings: That's Why
>God Gave Us Brains.
>
> Math a branch of Physics? IMHO, impossible. P-adics valid? No
>comment. After all, I haven't enough of a basis to have an opinion. If
>only all people were like that, all the time...
>
You really have not been open minded in your above.
>
>Niel de Beaudrap
Math cannot even begin to describe quantum mechanics in its strange
logic, in its breaking of causality. Even a piece of biology is bigger
than is the whole subject of mathematics. Take the human brain and
mind, it fits mathematics into a tiny corner of that biological brain,
and yet the brain is just a composition of atoms and what the atoms do
is the subject of physics, is it not.
So try to be a little more open minded
Subject: Re: Mission Impossible: Can probability=0 events occur?
From: "Robert E Sawyer"
Date: 13 Nov 1996 09:01:37 GMT
Concerning an infinite sequence of iid 0/1 random variables
X_1, X_2,... , with fixed pr(X_i=1), the following comments
have appeared in this thread.
Alan Douglas wrote:
>... one can easily imagine an infinity
> of sequences whose relative frequencies never converge.
G. A. Edgar wrote:
>Sure. Such a sequence is no less likely (or more likely)
>than any given sequence whose frequencies do converge.
I haven't thought about this in a long time, but something
is wrong here, I think. *All* binary sequences have
*convergent* relative frequencies, so convergence is
not only "almost sure", but "sure".
(The questions concern not *whether* there is convergence,
but rather the *values* to which there is convergence.)
Denote by R_n the (random) relative frequency of "1" among
X_1, X_2, ..., X_n: R_n = (X_1+...+X_n)/n; n=1,2,...
and let non-random values be denoted by corresponding
lower-case symbols.
Claim:
*Every* binary sequence has a convergent relative frequency.
(It suffices to look at the non-random case, just noting
r_n = r_(n-1) + (x_n - r_(n-1))/n, hence
|r_n - r_(n-1)| <= 1/n -> 0.)
It follows trivially that for infinite *random* sequences,
pr("R_n converges")=pr({(x_1, x_2, ...): r_n converges})=1,
since *every* (x_1, x_2, ...) is such that r_n converges.
Lastly, as a consequence of the Law of Large Numbers,
pr("R_n converges to t")=1 if and only if t=pr(X_i=1).
Robert E Sawyer (soen@pacbell.net)
_____________________________
Subject: Re: Solve this Please
From: David Kastrup
Date: 13 Nov 1996 11:04:07 +0100
Le Compte de Beaudrap writes:
> On Fri, 8 Nov 1996, Lyle VonSpreckelsen wrote:
@>
@> > Solve this
@> >
@> > Three Pipes supply an oil storage tank. The tank can be filled by
@> > pipes A and B running for 10 hours, by pipes B and C running for 15
@> > hours, or by pipes A and C running for 20 hours. How long does it
@> > take to fill the tank if all three pipes run?
@> >
@> > Got my andvanced math teacher (MR. V.) stumped
@> >
@> > J.D
@>
@> =09What I am about to write may look long and inelegant, but it
@> really isn't. Read on.
@> ______________________________________________________________
@>
@> Let V =3D volume of tank,
@> a, b, c =3D the "flow rates" of pipes A, B, C
@>
@> Therefore, 10(a + b + 0) =3D V {eqn1}
@> 15(0 + b + c) =3D V {eqn2}
@> 20(a + 0 + c) =3D V {eqn3}
@>
@> {eqn2} - {eqn1} gives: -10a + 5b + 15c =3D 0
@> or (b + 3c)/2 =3D a
@>
@> Substitute this into {eqn3} to get: 10(b + 3c) - 20c =3D V
@> or 10b + 10c =3D V.
@>
@>
@> But from {eqn1}: 10a + 10b =3D V
@> We have found: 10c + 10b =3D V
@>
@> Therefore: 10a =3D 10c
@> or a =3D c.
@>
@> Now, {eqn3} states that 20a + 20c =3D V
@> Therefore 40a =3D V
@> a =3D V/40
@> c =3D V/40
@>
@> {eqn1} states that 10a + 10b =3D V
@> Therefore 10b =3D 3V/4
@> b =3D 3V/40.
@>
@> Now that a, b, and c are known, what is the time "t" such that (a+b+c)t =
=3D V?
@> The question is now very straightforward. (5V/40)t =3D V,
@> t =3D 40/5 =3D 8.
@>
@> Combined, the pipes fill the tank in 8h.
@> This is the most straightforward (ie, direct) way of solving the problem.
@> No more direct way can be found (please hit me if I'm wrong).
I feel free to hit you. If I fill the tank with the three
combinations A+B, A+C *and* B+C at once, after one hour it will be
filled to 1/10 + 1/15 + 1/20 =3D 13/60. Having only A+B+C available,
however, it will be filled half of that, 13/120. So it will take
120/13 hours to fill it, 9 3/13 hours.
You not only get the answer wrong (if, as you claimed a=3Dc, then the
combination A+B should fill the tank in the same time as B+C, which it
doesn't), you make it *really* complicated as well.
--
David Kastrup Phone: +49-234-700-5570
Email: dak@neuroinformatik.ruhr-uni-bochum.de Fax: +49-234-709-4209
Institut f=FCr Neuroinformatik, Universit=E4tsstr. 150, 44780 Bochum, Germa=
ny
Subject: Re: Derivative equations system
From: dirka@uni-paderborn.de (Dirk Alboth)
Date: 13 Nov 1996 11:14:00 GMT
Dino Kermelek (dkermel@antun.gtfvz.hr) wrote:
: Hello to all of you math adorers.
: I need someone to teach me solving systems described in subject.
: As the best practice is through examples, here's one:
: dx/dt - 2dy/dt + 7dx/dt = -2x + y - z
: -3dx/dt - 2dy/dt + 6x = 3x + y - 7dx/dt
: 5dx/dt - 3y + 7dx/dt = -2x + 4dy/dt - z
: I'm aware of the fact that this kind of equations are solved by
: integrating, but I've never met with such complicated problem as
: this one (mostly I solved single equations, not systems). I guess
: the first step would be changing sides for some members in the
: 2nd and 3rd equation (dx, dy & dt to the left), but what then?
Rewrite this system as
A (x',y',z') = f(x,y,z), (*)
where A is a matrix, (x'=dx/dt and so on), f a function returning the
right hand side (which now only depends on x,y,z).
Now check whether the matrix A is invertible or not (e.g. by computing
det(A)).
If A is invertible, you can rewrite (*) as
(x',y',z') = A^{-1}f(x,y,z), (**)
(A^{-1} means the inverse matrix of A). You can solve this system by
standard means (look for "linear systems with constant coefficients").
If A is not invertible, you will find that x,y,z on the hand side must
satisfy some condition (some linear combination of them has to be 0 --
since f will turn out to be linear) so that the equation
A(a,b,c) = f(x,y,z)
is solvable for (a,b,c). [I.e. f(x,y,z) must be in the range of A.]
Find this condition, and use it to replace some of the x,y,z by an
expression involving the other(s). Now either you have found that
there is only the trivial solution or you have reduced (*) to a system
with one or two variables/equations, with another 'A' and another 'f'.
This new 'A' should be invertible and you now are in the situation of
(**).
Best regards,
Dirk
--
Dirk Alboth, Mathematics Dept., Paderborn University
33095 Paderborn, Germany
Subject: GPS (Global Positioning System) Math
From: Jeff Hahn
Date: Wed, 13 Nov 1996 05:08:54 -0600
Howdy,
I just received a new GPS receiver, which is a box the size of a
handheld calculator which will let me know exactly where I am and what
time it is (Ain't technology great!)
Being the curious sort, I'm trying to figure out the math involved. I
have the basic idea, but the method for solving the system of equations
I end up with has deserted me sometime since college.
Basics:
24 satellites are circling the earth each broadcasting their position
and the current time.
It supposedly takes reception from 4 satellites to derive position and
current time. More satellites can be tracked to reduce the error.
Receiver requires an accurate clock, although not necessarily one which
has been accurately set.
I only am interested in solving in a "generic" X,Y,Z space. I have a
fairly good idea how to convert results to latitude/longitude and
altitude above the earth.
Definitions:
Da = Distance from unknown to Satellite a
Da = sqrt( (X-Xa)^2 + (Y-Ya)^2 + (Z - Za)^2 )
Ta = Time broadcast from Satellite a with position information
Ra = Receiver time when broadcast from Satellite a received
Vs = Velocity of radio signal
It appears that once you solve X, Y, and Z that time is known, i.e.
once you know Da, Ra should equal Ta + (Da / Vs). The difference
between actual Ra and calculated Ra is the offset for adjusting the
clock.
I think I understand the problems with "bad" satellite geometry, let's
assume the ideal (which supposed is one satellite straight overhead,
with the remaining 3 equally spaced out around you just above the
horizon.)
Partial Solution:
(Da - Db) = [(Ra - Rb) - (Ta - Tb)] * Vs
(Da - Dc) = [(Ra - Rc) - (Ta - Tc)] * Vs
(Da - Dd) = [(Ra - Rd) - (Ta - Td)] * Vs
for satellites a, b, c, and d.
Once I plug in the long form of D equation, I'm stumped. Can anyone
show me how to solve such a system of equations in terms of X, Y, and Z?
Thanks for all the help. E-mail replies would be appreciated, I don't
get to read the newsgroup as often as I'd like!
Thanks again,
Jeff
jeffh@streek.com